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(assuming that the probability of having a girl or a boy is 50/50) Looking from beforehand, the probability of having three boys then a girl is the probability of each of these events happening multiplied together. That is 50% x 50% x 50% x 50% or 0.54 This would mean that the chance of having a girl after three boys is 0.0625. If you've already had the three boys though, it is a different story. The point is that previous experiences do not affect future ones; probability has no memory. Thus the probability of having a girl next is 50%, regardless of if you've had boys or girls in the past. To think otherwise is known as the gambler's fallacy, where a gambler says "black has come up 4 times in a row, it must be red next" even though the chance of red is always 50%
This question is extremely poorly phrased. The probability of three boys [sitting] in a row at an all boys school is 1. At an all girls school it is 0 and is otherwise somewhere in between. If the question is about birth order, do you take account of the fact that nearly half the families have two or fewer children? So that in half the cases the probability is 0. Finally, children's genders are not independent events. They depend on the parents' ages and their genes. However, if you assume that they are independent events then, given that the probability of a boy is approx 0.52, the probability of giving birth to three boys in a row is 0.523 = 0.1381
you have about a 42% chance for that to happen
Assuming that the probability of having a baby girl is 1/2 and that of having a baby boy is 1/2, the probability of having 3 baby girls in a row is (1/2)(1/2)(1/2)=1/8.
The chance is 3.5/7.