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Q: What is the incident type also described as is the combination of involved factors that affect the probability of control of an incident?
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What is the probability of getting neither an ace nor a heart?

The probability of not getting on ace is 48 in 52, or 12 in 13, or about 0.9231. The probability of not getting a heart is 39 in 52, or 3 in 4, or 0.75.These two events, however, are not exclusive, so you can not just multiply them together. You need to look at the big picture. But look at the summary below.There are 4 aces in the deck, one of which is a heart. There are 13 hearts in the deck, one of which is an ace. The inclusion set is 16 cards that are either an ace or a heart. Flip this over by subtracting from 52 and you get 36 cards that are not an ace nor a heart.So, the probability of getting neither an ace nor a heart is 36 in 52, or 18 in 26, or 9 in 13, or about 0.6923.Now, it turns out that you could have just multiplied the probabilities and obtained the same result. This worked because you were looking at inverse probabilities. It would not have worked if the question was to find the probability of getting an ace or a heart.In summary, I went ahead and showed the thought process involved to illustrate a point - that you need to understand the set of possible outcomes in order to make a correct calculation.


What is the probability of getting two kings and two ace that are all diamonds?

Since there are two kings of diamond (and two aces of diamond), there are more than one decks of cards. However, you have chosen not to say how many decks are involved. Nor do you mention whether the cards are replaced before the next card is picked. Without this information it is not possible to answer the question.


Which of these is involved in collecting data illustrations creative writing measurement?

Measurement is involved.


What is the formula to find the probability?

Its not an exact thing like with circle radius, but basically add together all the numbers and make a fraction like if there are 3 yellow balls, 3 green ones and 5 blue ones in a bag, then you add 3+3+5 = 11, and then you figure out that the probability of picking a blue ball out of the bag is 5/11. Probability is the ratio of all outcomes that you define as being of interest divided by all possible outcomes. For example, the number of ways to get doubles on 2 6-sided dice is 6 (1,1 2,2, 3,3 4,4 5,5 6,6) but there are 36 different ways for the dice to turn up so the probability of getting doubles on a single roll is 6/36 = 1/6 Likewise there are 6 ways to roll a 7 (1,6 2,5 3,4 4,3 5,2 6,1) so the odds of rolling a seven on a single roll are 6/36 = 1/6 The math gets more involved as you start looking at situations where the odds of getting any one of the particular outcomes are not the same - for example, with loaded dice - or where you are looking at a sequence of events.


What is Risk neutral probability measure?

A probability measure allocates a non-negative probability to each possible outcome. All individual probabilities together add up to 1. The "risk-neutral probability measure" is used in mathematical finance. Generally, risk-neutral probabilities are used for the arbitrage-free pricing of assets for which replication strategies exist. This is about relative pricing, based on possible replication strategies. The first argument is that a complete and arbitrage-free market setting is characterised by unique state prices. A state price is the price of a security which has a payoff of 1 unit only if a particular state is reached (these securities are called Arrow securities). In a complete market, every conceivable Arrow security can be traded. It is more easy to visualise these securities in terms of discrete scenarios. (On a continuous range of scenarios we would have to argue in terms of state price density.) The arbitrage-free price of every asset is the sum (over all scenarios) of the scenario-payoff weighted with its state price. Any pricing discrepancy with regards to an implicit state price would enable arbitrage in a complete market. The assumption is that the pursuit of such opportunities drives the prices towards the arbitrage-free levels. Hence the state prices are unique. Since the whole set of Arrow securities is the same as a risk-free bond (sure payoff of 1 unit at maturity), the price of the whole set of Arrow securities must be e^(-rt) (assuming we are now at maturity minus t). Risk-neutral probabilities can then be defined in terms of state prices, or vice versa. A probability measure has to fulfil the condition that the sum of all individual probabilities adds up to 1. Therefore, if we want to create an artificial probability distribution based on the state price distribution, we have to multiply each state price with e^(rt) in order to obtain its probability equivalent. It is not surprising then that any expectation taken under the risk-neutral probability measure grows at the risk-free rate. This is an artificial probability measure, why should we create such a construct? This connection allows us to exploit mathematical tools in probability theory for the purpose of arbitrage-free pricing. The main difficulty about risk-neutral probabilities is that the probability concepts used have not initially been developped for the purpose of financial pricing, therefore, two different languages are used, which can easily be confusing. The economic interpretation of a risk-neutral probability is a state price compounded at the risk-free rate. Anything that has an effect on a state price (preferences, real probability, ...), has an effect on the risk-neutral probability. So now we have a bridge to go from state prices to risk-neutral probabilities and back again. What is this good for? According to the second argument, we can, under certain conditions, specify the unique risk-neutral probability distribution of an underlying asset price with the help of an only incomplete specification of its real probability distribution, thanks to the Girsanov Theorem. If the innovation in the price of the underlying asset is driven by a Brownian motion, then all we need to obtain the risk-neutral probability distribution is the volatility parameter. What can we now do with this risk-neutral probability distribution? We can use the first argument to convert the obtained risk-neutral probability distribution back to a state price distribution, and the state price distribution applied to the payoff distribution (i.e. taking the sum over all scenarios) leads to the arbitrage-free price. These arguments save us a lot of trouble when trying to calculate the arbitrage-free price of an asset. They allow us to avoid the estimation of risk premia, by implicitly using those incorporated in the underlying asset price. The arbitrage-free price is, however, NOT independent of risk-premia. The price of the underlying asset is part of the pricing equation, and the risk-premia are inherent in this price, but because the price of the underlying asset is known to us, we obviously do not need estimate it. It is important to emphasise that the risk-neutral valuation approach only works if the asset to be priced can be perfectly replicated. This is often not true in reality, especially when dynamic replication strategies are involved. Paper explaining risk-neutral probabilities: http://ssrn.com/abstract=1395390

Related questions

Is the combination of involved factors that affect the probability of control of an incident?

incident complexity


What is the combination of involved factors that affect the probability of control of an incident?

incident complexity


What incident is combination of involved factors that affect the probability of control of control of an incident?

incident complexity


What incident type is the combination of involved factors that affect the probability of control of an incident?

incident complexity


What is incident type or complexity based on?

A combination of involved factors that affect the probability of control of the incident.


Incident type is the combination of involved factors that affect the probability of control of an incident?

Emergency managemtn working group


The incident action plan must be in writing for which types of incident?

A hazardous material is involved in the incident


What is a sentence using the word involved?

I did not want to involve him in what we were talking about.


How does the experimental probability of making purple compared with the theoretical probability of making purple?

It is not clear why there should be any probability involved. The process of making purple is well understood and so is deterministic, not probabilistic.It is not clear why there should be any probability involved. The process of making purple is well understood and so is deterministic, not probabilistic.It is not clear why there should be any probability involved. The process of making purple is well understood and so is deterministic, not probabilistic.It is not clear why there should be any probability involved. The process of making purple is well understood and so is deterministic, not probabilistic.


Which of the following is a true statement about the after action review?

During this review, there should be an open and honest discussion of people involved in the incident response.During this review, there should be an open and honest discussion about processes involved in the incident response.During this review, there should be an open and honest discussion about processes involved in the incident response.


Who is involved in a fire incident in Fallen Angels?

the fire Brigade.


What is involved in a Scene Size-up?

incident complexity changes