Assuming that the chance of a woman giving birth to a boy or a girl is the same (in reality there's about 105 boys born for every 100 girls) then the probability of 22 of the same gender births *in a row* is: P=(0.5)^22=0.0000002384 or 1 in 4,194,304 It depends on the "when" of the question. If you point at a childless woman, and say "She will give birth to 22 children. What is the likelyhood that they will all be girls?" In that case the probability will be one in two-to-the-twenty-second. Pretty long odds. BUT, if you point at a woman with twenty one children, and ask "What are the odds that the next one will be a girl?" Then the answer is one in two. Make sense?
Chat with our AI personalities
Assuming that the births at the hospital are equally likely to be of either gender then the answer is (1/2)4 = 1/16
There is not enough information on the propensity for the parents to have a child of either gender and so it is necessary to assume that the probability of the gender of the next child is independent of the genders of preceding children. In that case the probability of the next child being a girl is 1/2.There is not enough information on the propensity for the parents to have a child of either gender and so it is necessary to assume that the probability of the gender of the next child is independent of the genders of preceding children. In that case the probability of the next child being a girl is 1/2.There is not enough information on the propensity for the parents to have a child of either gender and so it is necessary to assume that the probability of the gender of the next child is independent of the genders of preceding children. In that case the probability of the next child being a girl is 1/2.There is not enough information on the propensity for the parents to have a child of either gender and so it is necessary to assume that the probability of the gender of the next child is independent of the genders of preceding children. In that case the probability of the next child being a girl is 1/2.
The genders of children within the same family are not independent. So the answer will depends on the pattern of children's gender in the family's ancestry, as well as the age of the parents. However, if you make the unreasonable and unjustified assumption that the genders are independent and that the probability of either gender is 1/2, then the answer is (1/2)5 = 1/32.
Oh, dude, the probability of the next child being a girl is still 50/50. Each birth is like a coin flip - it doesn't matter what came before. So, you could have a dozen girls in a row and the next one could still be a girl. It's all just random chance, man.
There are two problems in answering this question. The gender of children are not independent events and also, the probability of a boy is not half as is often assumed but nearer to 52% and it varies over time and between countries.However, if you assume that the genders are independent and that the probability of either gender is 0.5 then the answer is 0.875