Assuming that the chance of a woman giving birth to a boy or a girl is the same (in reality there's about 105 boys born for every 100 girls) then the probability of 22 of the same gender births *in a row* is: P=(0.5)^22=0.0000002384 or 1 in 4,194,304 It depends on the "when" of the question. If you point at a childless woman, and say "She will give birth to 22 children. What is the likelyhood that they will all be girls?" In that case the probability will be one in two-to-the-twenty-second. Pretty long odds. BUT, if you point at a woman with twenty one children, and ask "What are the odds that the next one will be a girl?" Then the answer is one in two. Make sense?
Assuming that the births at the hospital are equally likely to be of either gender then the answer is (1/2)4 = 1/16
There is not enough information on the propensity for the parents to have a child of either gender and so it is necessary to assume that the probability of the gender of the next child is independent of the genders of preceding children. In that case the probability of the next child being a girl is 1/2.There is not enough information on the propensity for the parents to have a child of either gender and so it is necessary to assume that the probability of the gender of the next child is independent of the genders of preceding children. In that case the probability of the next child being a girl is 1/2.There is not enough information on the propensity for the parents to have a child of either gender and so it is necessary to assume that the probability of the gender of the next child is independent of the genders of preceding children. In that case the probability of the next child being a girl is 1/2.There is not enough information on the propensity for the parents to have a child of either gender and so it is necessary to assume that the probability of the gender of the next child is independent of the genders of preceding children. In that case the probability of the next child being a girl is 1/2.
The genders of children within the same family are not independent. So the answer will depends on the pattern of children's gender in the family's ancestry, as well as the age of the parents. However, if you make the unreasonable and unjustified assumption that the genders are independent and that the probability of either gender is 1/2, then the answer is (1/2)5 = 1/32.
There are two problems in answering this question. The gender of children are not independent events and also, the probability of a boy is not half as is often assumed but nearer to 52% and it varies over time and between countries.However, if you assume that the genders are independent and that the probability of either gender is 0.5 then the answer is 0.875
There are several reasons that the question cannot have a proper answer. The first is that children's gender are not independent events. It is, therefore, wrong to multiply probabilities. Second, the probability of a girl is not 1/2. Current statistics show that it is approx 0.48. However, if you wish to ignore these relevant facts, the [incorrect] answer that is expected is 1/4.
Assuming that the births at the hospital are equally likely to be of either gender then the answer is (1/2)4 = 1/16
This is a Binomial Probability; p=0.5, n=10 & x=7. Since you want the probability of exactly 7, in the related link calculator, after placing in the above values, P(x=7) = 0.1172 or 11.72%.
No, it is not.
The expected (but incorrect) answer to the question is 1/2.It is not correct because:the probabilities of the gender of children in a family are not independent;the probability of a boy is not 1/2 but greater. For example, the global proportion of male births in 2012 was approx 52%.
The global gender probability, at birth, is approx 0.517 for male and 0.483 for female. This is not the same as the gender ratio at conception because of gender-specific abortion.
There is not enough information on the propensity for the parents to have a child of either gender and so it is necessary to assume that the probability of the gender of the next child is independent of the genders of preceding children. In that case the probability of the next child being a girl is 1/2.There is not enough information on the propensity for the parents to have a child of either gender and so it is necessary to assume that the probability of the gender of the next child is independent of the genders of preceding children. In that case the probability of the next child being a girl is 1/2.There is not enough information on the propensity for the parents to have a child of either gender and so it is necessary to assume that the probability of the gender of the next child is independent of the genders of preceding children. In that case the probability of the next child being a girl is 1/2.There is not enough information on the propensity for the parents to have a child of either gender and so it is necessary to assume that the probability of the gender of the next child is independent of the genders of preceding children. In that case the probability of the next child being a girl is 1/2.
It is said to be 90 to 99%. and Brazilian gender chart is also the same probability in Western.
It is found in about every 7,000 births. It is not more common in any particular gender or ethnicity.
For any particular pair of parents, the gender of their children is not 1/2 nor are the genders independent. However, if you assume that they are, and that the probability of either gender is 0.2, the probability tat 4 out of 8 are girls is 8C4*(1/2)8 = 70/256 = 0.27 approx.
The gender of a child is not a random variable so the question cannot be answered without additional information.
The probability that two are male is 0.6032. The other two can be any gender - including two more males.
It is not possible to answer the question because:the total number of children that the couple had is not known;the gender of the child depends [mainly] on the father, and is not 0.5;the gender of each child is not independent of the gender of previous children.