It is 0.1587
.0401
Variance" is a mesaure of the dispersion of the probability distribution of a random variable. Consider two random variables with the same mean (same aver-age value). If one of them has a distribution with greater variance, then, roughly speaking, the probability that the variable will take on a value far from the mean is greater.
Yes, the uniform probability distribution is symmetric about the mode. Draw the sketch of the uniform probability distribution. If we say that the distribution is uniform, then we obtain the same constant for the continuous variable. * * * * * The uniform probability distribution is one in which the probability is the same throughout its domain, as stated above. By definition, then, there can be no value (or sub-domain) for which the probability is greater than elsewhere. In other words, a uniform probability distribution has no mode. The mode does not exist. The distribution cannot, therefore, be symmetric about something that does not exist.
The answer depends on the underlying distribution. For example, if you have a random variable X, with a symmetric distribution with mean = 20 and sd = 1, then prob(X > 1) = 1, to at least 10 decimal places.
30 percent.
.0401
0.0375
Variance" is a mesaure of the dispersion of the probability distribution of a random variable. Consider two random variables with the same mean (same aver-age value). If one of them has a distribution with greater variance, then, roughly speaking, the probability that the variable will take on a value far from the mean is greater.
Yes, the uniform probability distribution is symmetric about the mode. Draw the sketch of the uniform probability distribution. If we say that the distribution is uniform, then we obtain the same constant for the continuous variable. * * * * * The uniform probability distribution is one in which the probability is the same throughout its domain, as stated above. By definition, then, there can be no value (or sub-domain) for which the probability is greater than elsewhere. In other words, a uniform probability distribution has no mode. The mode does not exist. The distribution cannot, therefore, be symmetric about something that does not exist.
The answer depends on the underlying distribution. For example, if you have a random variable X, with a symmetric distribution with mean = 20 and sd = 1, then prob(X > 1) = 1, to at least 10 decimal places.
The normal distribution and the t-distribution are both symmetric bell-shaped continuous probability distribution functions. The t-distribution has heavier tails: the probability of observations further from the mean is greater than for the normal distribution. There are other differences in terms of when it is appropriate to use them. Finally, the standard normal distribution is a special case of a normal distribution such that the mean is 0 and the standard deviation is 1.
0.8413
30 percent.
The answer depends on greater standard deviation that WHAT!
The z-score, for a value z, is the probability that a Standard Normal random variable will have a value greater than z.
No. A binary distribution gives the probability of obtaining x successes in n trials, x can not be greater than n. The binomial distribution can be used for any whole number greater than 0, but the distribution is not unbounded. So let's say the binomial can determine the probability of x success in n trials where n can be from zero to some finite number less than infinity.
Yes. The normal distribution is used to approximate a binomial distribution when the sample size (n) times the probability of success (p), and the probability of failure (q) are both greater than or equal to 5. The mean of the normal approximation is n*p and the standard deviation is the square root of n*p*q.