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Yes as for example 1/16 divded by 1/4 = 1/4
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When you divide a unit fraction by a whole number will the quotient be greater than or less than the unit fraction?
The quotient will be less. 1/2 ÷ 2 = 1/4
Why is the quotient of two fractions less than either fraction?
There can be no reason because your assertion is not true.For example, 1/6 and 1/2 are both fractions less than one. But their quotient is (1/6)/(1/2) = (1/6)*(2/1) = 2/6 = 1/3. And that is not more than 1/2.
Why is the quotient of two fractions less than 1 greater than both?
It need not be. The numbers 1/2 and (-1/2) are both fractions less than 1 but their quotient is -1, which is less than both the fractions.
How do you find if the fraction is smaller than 1 or not?
If the numerator is less than the denominator then the fraction is less than 1.
How do you tell if a fraction is less than 1 percent?
You can tell if a fraction is less than 1% if the denominator of the fraction has its decimal place moved to the right 2 times and is less than the numerator it is less than 1 percent.
When you divide a unit fraction by a whole number will the quotient be greater than or less than the unit fraction?
The quotient will be less. 1/2 ÷ 2 = 1/4
When you divide a fraction by a whole number is the quotient greater than or less than 1?
greater
When you divide a mixed number by a fraction less than 1 will the quotient be greater or less than the whole number?
It will be greater.
When you divide a unit fraction less than 1 by a whole number is the quotient larger or than fraction smaller than?
it is smaller (1/2)/2=.25
When you divide a whole number by a fraction less than 1 will the quotient be greater or less than the whole number?
Generally, the quotient of a whole number divided by a fraction will be greater than that whole number, because division is simply multiplying the dividend by the reciprocal of the divisor. For instance: 2 / (1/2) = 2 * (2/1)
Why is the quotient of two fractions less than either fraction?
There can be no reason because your assertion is not true.For example, 1/6 and 1/2 are both fractions less than one. But their quotient is (1/6)/(1/2) = (1/6)*(2/1) = 2/6 = 1/3. And that is not more than 1/2.
Why is the quotient of two fractions less than 1 greater than both?
It need not be. The numbers 1/2 and (-1/2) are both fractions less than 1 but their quotient is -1, which is less than both the fractions.
When you divide a fraction less than 1 by a whole number greater than 1 how does the quotient compare to the dividend?
The answer will depend on the sign of the fraction.(1/4) / 2 = 1/8, which is smaller.(-1/4) / 2 = -1/8, which is greater.
When you divid a fraction less than 1 by a whole number greater than 1 how does the quotient compare to the dividend?
The answer depends on the sign of the numbers.(1/4) / 2 = 1/8, which is smaller.(-1/4) / 2 = -1/8, which is greater.
Why is the quotient of two fractions less than 1 always greater than either fraction?
There can be no answer because it is not necessarily true. Suppose f1 and f2 are two fractions.Suppose f1 = 1/2, which is less than 1;suppose f2 = -1/4, which is also less than 1.Then f1/f2 = -2 which is, in fact, smaller than either fraction. Go figure!
When will the quotient of two fractions less than 1 be greater than either fraction?
Yes. Consider two negative fractions. Since they are negative, both are less than 1. But their product is positive and so greater than either.
Is every fraction less than 1?
No. Every proper fraction is less than 1, but improper fraction will be greater than 1.
