Yes, it does.
The limit of cos2(x)/x as x approaches 0 does not exist. As x approaches 0 from the left, the limit is negative infinity. As x approaches 0 from the right, the limit is positive infinity. These two values would have to be equal for a limit to exist.
The limit is the Golden ratio which is 0.5[1 + sqrt(5)]
In the limit, a chord approaches a tangent, but is never actually a tangent. (In much the same way as 1/x approaches 0 as x increases, but is never actually 0.)In the limit, a chord approaches a tangent, but is never actually a tangent. (In much the same way as 1/x approaches 0 as x increases, but is never actually 0.)In the limit, a chord approaches a tangent, but is never actually a tangent. (In much the same way as 1/x approaches 0 as x increases, but is never actually 0.)In the limit, a chord approaches a tangent, but is never actually a tangent. (In much the same way as 1/x approaches 0 as x increases, but is never actually 0.)
Because it leads to the limit concept which in turn leads to concept of derivative...
No.
The limit is 0.
1
The limit does not exist.
the limit does not exist
The tangent of infinity is undefined because it is not a real number. The tangent function is defined as the ratio of the side opposite a given angle to the side adjacent to the angle in a right triangle. Since infinity is an abstract concept which has no physical representation, it is not possible to measure the sides of a triangle with an infinite length. Therefore, the tangent of infinity is undefined.
The limit should be 0.
The answer will depend on any parentheses present in the expression. Until these are given explicitly, it is not possible to answer the question.