No. A simple example of this is y = x2; the inverse is x = y2, which is not a function.
Y = 1/X2 ==============Can it pass the line test? * * * * * That is not the inverse, but the reciprocal. Not the same thing! The inverse is y = sqrt(x). Onless the range is resticted, the mapping is one-to-many and so not a function.
Y = X2 Inverse. Y = 1/X2 ======
y = x2 where the domain is the set of real numbers does not have an inverse, because the square root function is a one-two-two mapping (except at 0). Any polynomial with more than one root, over the reals, has no inverse. y = 1/x has no inverse across 0. But it is possible to define the domain so that each of these functions has an inverse. For example y = x2 where x is non-negative has the square root function as its inverse.
No. If you invert that function, it will produce an equation that gives you two return values for one input value. This does not meet the definition of a function.
1 over x2 - 4 is the multiplicative inverse of x2 minus four 1/x2 - 4
The additive inverse of x2yz is -x2yz
Given y=ln(1/x) y'=(1/(1/x))(-x-2)=(1/(1/x))(1/x2)=x/x2=1/x Use the chain rule. The derivative of ln(x) is 1/x. Instead of just "x" inside the natural log function, it's "1/x". Since the inside of the function is not x, the derivative must be multiplied by the derivative of the inside of the function. So it's 1/(1/x) [the derivative of the outside function, natural log] times -x-2=1/x2 [the derivative of the inside of the function, 1/x] This all simplifies to 1/x So the derivative of ln(1/x) is 1/x
The inverses of hyperbolic function are the area hyperbolic functions. They are called area functions becasue they compute the area of a sector of the unit hyperbola x2 − y2 = 1 This is similar to the inverse trig functions which correspond to arclength of a sector on the unit circle
log(9x) + log(x) = 4log(10)log(9) + log(x) + log(x) = 4log(10)2log(x) = 4log(10) - log(9)log(x2) = log(104) - log(9)log(x2) = log(104/9)x2 = 104/9x = 102/3x = 33 and 1/3
If a function is even ie if f(-x) = f(x). Such a function would be symmetric about the y-axis. So f(x) is a many-to-one function. The inverse mapping then is one-to-many which is not a function. In fact, the function need not be symmetric about the y-axis. Symmetry about x=k (for any constant k) would also do. Also, leaving aside the question of symmetry, the existence of an inverse depends on the domain over which the original function is defined. Thus, y = f(x) = x2 does not have an inverse if f is defined from the real numbers (R) to R. But if it is defined from (and to) the non-negative Reals there is an inverse - the square-root function.
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