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Is negative one its own additive inverse?

Updated: 8/19/2019
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12y ago

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No.

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Q: Is negative one its own additive inverse?
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Related questions

Is it possible for a number to be it's own additive inverse?

That would be zero. For a number "X" to be its own additive inverse, that would mean: X = -X


What rational number is its own additive inverse?

Zero.


What number is the opposite of 0?

0 is its own additive inverse. There is no multiplicative inverse for 0.


When the additive inverse of a number equal to the absolute value of the number?

One example would be a Galois Field size 4 (ie GF(4)). Here, the elements are {0,1,2,3} and every element is its own additive inverse.


What is the additive inverse of zero?

zero is its own opposite. 0 + -0 = 0


Is the absolute value of a positive integer a negative integer?

Absolute values are never negative. The opposite, or negative, or additive inverse, of a negative number is the number's absolute value; a non-negative number is its own absolute value. The absolute values of 7 and -5, are, respectively, 7 and 5.


What number is equal to it opposit?

The number that is its own "additive inverse" is zero. (x + 0 = x - 0)For the multiplicative inverse (1/x), the number 1 is its own inverse (also -1). (x times 1 = x/1)x = 1/x is only true where x = 1 or x = (-1)


What numbers are their own multiplicative inverse?

One


Is one the only number that has its own multiplicative integer?

No, it is one of two numbers that has its own multiplicative inverse which is an integer. The other number is -1.


When is the inverse of a itself a function?

Since the inverse of a function is it's reflection over the line x=y, which has a slope of 1. The only way a function can be It'a own inverse is if it is a liner function whose slope is perpendicular to the line. Since a perpendicular line is any line with the negative recoprocal of the slope, any linear function whose slope is -1 will be it's own inverse. - stefanie math 7-12 teacher


What is the multiplicative of -1?

Assuming the question is about the multiplicative inverse, the answer is, -1. It is its own multiplicative inverse.


What is the inverse to the statement x equals y?

x=y is the identity. It is its own inverse. So the inverse is y=x.