0 is its own additive inverse. There is no multiplicative inverse for 0.
change it to an improper fraction and then do it
The multiplicative inverse of 4i is -(1/4)*i.
Additive inverse: -2.5 Multiplicative inverse: 0.4
Multiplicative Inverse of a NumberReciprocal The reciprocal of x is . In other words, a reciprocal is a fraction flipped upside down. Multiplicative inverse means the same thing as reciprocal. For example, the multiplicative inverse (reciprocal) of 12 is and the multiplicative inverse (reciprocal) of is . Note: The product of a number and its multiplicative inverse is 1. Observe that ·= 1. Multiplicative Inverse of a NumberReciprocal The reciprocal of x is . In other words, a reciprocal is a fraction flipped upside down. Multiplicative inverse means the same thing as reciprocal. For example, the multiplicative inverse (reciprocal) of 12 is and the multiplicative inverse (reciprocal) of is . Note: The product of a number and its multiplicative inverse is 1. Observe that ·= 1.
Assuming the question is about the multiplicative inverse, the answer is, -1. It is its own multiplicative inverse.
No, it is one of two numbers that has its own multiplicative inverse which is an integer. The other number is -1.
All rational numbers, with the exception of zero (0), have a multiplicative inverse. In fact, all real numbers (again, except for zero) have multiplicative inverses, though the inverses of irrational numbers are themselves irrational. Even imaginary numbers have multiplicative inverses (the multiplicative inverse of 5i is -0.2i - as you can see the inverse itself is also imaginary). Even complex numbers (the sum of an imaginary number and a real number) have multiplicative inverses (the inverse of [5i + 2] is [-5i/29 + 2/29] - similar to irrational and imaginary numbers, the inverse of a complex number is itself complex). The onlynumber, in any set of numbers, that does not have a multiplicative inverse is zero.
The inverse function of multiplication is division.
A multiplicative inverse for 2 numbers exists if the 2 numbers are coprime, i.e. their greatest common divisor (or gcd) is 1. However, if your question refers to just a singular number, virtually all real numbers (with the exception of zero) have a multiplicative inverse.
Yes, and for any non-zero rational x, the multiplicative inverse is 1/x.
0 is its own additive inverse. There is no multiplicative inverse for 0.
change it to an improper fraction and then do it
multiplicative inverse
The multiplicative inverse of 4i is -(1/4)*i.
The multiplicative inverse is 1/(-0.50) = -2
the multiplicative inverse of -100 is 1/-100