ngislo mo
No, they are not equivalent sets.
Disjoint sets are sets whose intersection is the empty set. That is, they have no elements in common. Examples: {Odd integers} and {Multiples of 6}. {People living in my street} and {Objects made of glass}.
equivalent sets are sets having the same number of elements Example: a= {dog, cat, buffalo, horse, cow} b= { lion, tiger, zebra, wolf, puma} set a has 5 elements, so with set b which has 5 elements. so, sets a and b are equivalent sets.
Equivalent sets are sets that have the same cardinality. For finite sets it means that they have the same number of distinct elements.For infinite sets, though, things get a bit complicated. Then it is possible for a set to be equivalent to a proper subset of itself: for example, the set of all integers is equivalent to the set of all even integers. What is required is a one-to-one mapping, f(x) = 2x, from the first set to the second.
It is a universal set
belongs to an infinite number of sets. For example, the Real Numbers, the Rational Numbers, Integers, negative integers, odd negative integers, negative primes numbers, the set {12, -17, 98} or {2.76, pi, -17, k, wikianswers}. In fact any collection, however random, of numbers or other things, that includes -17.
Not necessarily. The odd integers and the even integers are two infinitely large sets. But their intersection is the null (empty) set.
Integers include negative numbers.
They are sets of integers such that the sum of the squares of two of the numbers equals the square of the third. For example, 5, 12 and 13 where 52 + 122 = 132
Integers are whole numbers as for example 28 minus 17 = 11
Every mathematician uses/used integers. It is one of the most important number sets.
Integers and whole numbers are the same thing. The sets are identical.