For finite sets similarity simply requires both sets to have the same number of distinct elements (the same cardinality). For example, {1,2,3} and {a,b,c,a}. The second set appears to have 4 elements but, in fact, it has only three distinct elements - the same as the first.
Similarity of sets does get more complicated (and counter-intuitive) when dealing with infinite sets. It is probably not too hard to see that the set of odd integers (infinitely many) is similar to the set of even integers (infinitely many). But it is not so easy to see that the set of odd integers is similar to the set of ALL integers.
This is because you can define a mapping from the odd integers to all integers as:
2n-1 to n
Proving that this mapping is bijective (injective and surjective) shows that the two sets have the same cardinality.
Yes.
equal sets with exactly the same elements and number of elements.equivalent sets with numbers of elements
Yes,Because not all disjoint no equivalent other have disjoint and equivalent
we can consider all infinite sets as equivlent sets if we go by the the cantor set theory.for eg. on a number line if we consider the nos. between 0 and 1 as a set then they are infinite. similarly the nos. between 0 and 5 can also be considered infinite and if considered as a set then they can be considered as equivalent
A Parallelogram (Examples: Rectangle, square,etc.)
no
A={1,2,3} Z={6,7,2} it is the same number of items
They are not equivalent sets.
Equivalent sets are sets with exactly the same number of elements.
No, they are not equivalent sets.
No, because equivalent sets are sets that have the SAME cardinality but equal sets are sets that all their elements are precisely the SAME. example: A={a,b,c} and B={1,2,3} equivalent sets C={1,2,3} and D={1,2,3} equal sets
Yes. Equivalent means equal.
sets
Equivalent sets are sets with exactly the same number of elements.
Yes.
two sets A and B are said to be equivalent if there exists a bijective mapping between A and B
yes, equal sets are equalent