42 must be one of them...
42 for sure...
364
if U0=40 U1=38=40-2 U2=34=38-4 U3=28=34-6 xn+1=xn-2*n and the next numbers are 20 and 10
The two numbers can be 5 times 8 = 40
The two whole numbers that go into 40 evenly are 1, 2, 4, 5, 8, 10, 20, and 40.
42 for sure...
364
The difference between the numbers is increasing by 1 each time. Therefore, the next two numbers in the sequence are 40 - 5 = 35 and 35 - 6 = 29.
if U0=40 U1=38=40-2 U2=34=38-4 U3=28=34-6 xn+1=xn-2*n and the next numbers are 20 and 10
70, 112, 168
How about 40 and 1.
The two numbers can be 5 times 8 = 40
The two whole numbers that go into 40 evenly are 1, 2, 4, 5, 8, 10, 20, and 40.
1 x 5 = 5 5 x 10 = 50 ; 10 is 5+5 50 x 20 = 1000; 20 is 10+10 1000 x 40 = 40,000 ; 40 is 20 + 20 40,000 x 80 = 3,200,000; 80 is 40+40 therefore the next 2 numbers are 40,000 and 3,200,000
72 and 40
40 and 72
By the identity property, the only numbers that can equal -6 and 40 are -6 and 40 themselves.