cos(2x) = 1 - 2(sin(x)^2), so sin(x)^2 = 1/2 - 1/2*cos(2x).
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No.
Yes. Except where sin x = 0, because then you would be dividing by zero so the quotient is undefined.
Do sin(x), square it, and then multiply it by two.
The deriviative of sin2 x + cos2 x is 2 cos x - 2 sin x
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Answer 1 Put simply, sine squared is sinX x sinX. However, sine is a function, so the real question must be 'what is sinx squared' or 'what is sin squared x': 'Sin(x) squared' would be sin(x^2), i.e. the 'x' is squared before performing the function sin. 'Sin squared x' would be sin^2(x) i.e. sin squared times sin squared: sin(x) x sin(x). This can also be written as (sinx)^2 but means exactly the same. Answer 2 Sine squared is sin^2(x). If the power was placed like this sin(x)^2, then the X is what is being squared. If it's sin^2(x) it's telling you they want sin(x) times sin(x).
Sin squared is equal to 1 - cos squared.
Sin squared, cos squared...you removed the x in the equation.
I suggest you use an online graphing calculator to do this. For example, you might try Wolfram Alpha.
no
sin squared
sin cubed + cos cubed (sin + cos)( sin squared - sin.cos + cos squared) (sin + cos)(1 + sin.cos)
sin y is a function so the question does not appear to make any sense.
No.
Note that an angle should always be specified - for example, 1 - cos square x. Due to the Pythagorean formula, this can be simplified as sin square x. Note that sin square x is a shortcut of (sin x) squared.
Multiply both sides by sin(1-cos) and you lose the denominators and get (sin squared) minus 1+cos times 1-cos. Then multiply out (i.e. expand) 1+cos times 1-cos, which will of course give the difference of two squares: 1 - (cos squared). (because the cross terms cancel out.) (This is diff of 2 squares because 1 is the square of 1.) And so you get (sin squared) - (1 - (cos squared)) = (sin squared) + (cos squared) - 1. Then from basic trig we know that (sin squared) + (cos squared) = 1, so this is 0.