100%
This is a law of addition probability which states that the probability of A or B equals the probability of A plus the probability of B minus the probability of A and B. Written in mathematical terms, the equation is: P(AorB) = P(A) + P(B) - P(AnB) where P(AnB) = 0 (since you can not pull out a green and black ball at the same time). Let P(A) = Probability of drawing the green ball & let P(B) = Probability of drawing the black ball. Total outcomes is 17. So, P(A) = 4/17 & P(B) = 6/17. Therefore P(green or black) = 4/17 + 6/17 = 10/17.
The probability that you pick 3 white balls is 0.05 or 5%.----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------EXPLANATIONThe probability of first drawing a white ball is: P(W1) =3/6.The probability of drawing a white ball given the event that you already draw awhite ball in the first draw and not replacing it back is: P(W2│W1) =2/5.The probability of drawing a white ball on the third draw given the event that awhite ball was drawn in the first and in the second draw is: P(W3│(W1UW2)) =1/4Now, the probability of drawing 3 white balls one by one with out replacement(taking all 3 balls at a time gets the same analysis and result) is:P(W1UW2UW3) =P(W1)∙P(W2│W1)∙P(W3│(W1UW2)) =(3/6)∙(2/5)∙(1/4) =1/20=0.05 =5%.
The probability of getting on the first draw a black ball is: P(B1) = 3/7. The probability of getting a red ball given the event of drawing a black ball on the first draw is: P(R2│B1) = 4/6. The probability of drawing a black ball on the first draw and a red ball on the second draw is: P(B1UR2) = P(B1)∙P(R 2│B1) = (3/7)∙(4/6) = 0.2857... ~ 0.286 ~ ~ 28.6%
Yes, it certainly can if there is only one possible outcome. For instance, the probability of drawing a red ball from a bag containing nothing but red balls is equal to one.
No. Drawing a red ball and then a blue ball from a bag are not mutually exclusive events, because the first event changes the probability of the second event, unless you return the first ball to the bag before drawing the second ball.
There are 7 balls in total.4 are red and 1 is the blue "5" ball. Thus there are five balls out of the seven which meet the criteria and therefore the odds must be 5/7.The probabilities are mutually exclusive (i.e. you can not both draw a red ball and the "5" ball at the same time as the "5" is blue) so you just add the probabilities of each together.Probability of drawing a red ball = 4/7 (4 of the 7 balls are red)Probability of drawing the "5" ball = 1/7 (1 of the 7 balls is the "5" ball)Overall probability = 4/7 + 1/7 = 5/7
20 marbles total, 10 of which are blue so, odds of drawing blue are 10/20=.5=50%
The probability is 1 if you draw three balls without replacement. If only one draw, it is 3/5.
14/27 ~ 0.519 ~ 51.9%----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------EXPLANATIONFor bag 1: Probability of drawing a black ball; P(B1) =6/9. A white one; P(W1) =3/9For bag 2: P(B2) =5/9. P(W2) =4/9.Probability of drawing a black ball from each bag: P(B1UB2) =(6/9)∙(5/9) =10/27Probability of drawing a white ball from each bag: P(W1UW2) =(3/9)∙(4/9) =4/27The probability of drawing 2 balls of the same color is the sum of the aboveprobabilities:P(2 same color balls) =P(B1UB2) + P(W1UW2) =10/27 +4/27 =14/27 =0.5185...P(2 same color balls) ~ 0.519 ~ 51.9%
The probability of a simple event is the number of ways to succeed over the total possibilities. So, there are three white balls, and ten balls total. So: P(white) = 3/10
0.4
events are 99events wanted 6so probability is 6/99