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Q: Why does cos2 equals pi?

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cos2 + cos2tan2 = cos2 + cos2*sin2/cos2 = cos2 + sin2 which is identically equal to 1. So the solution is all angles.

sec2(x) - tan2(x)= 1/cos2(x) - sin2(x)/cos2(x)= (1 - sin2(x)) / cos2(x)= cos2(x) / cos2(x)= 1

Use these identities: sin2(x) + cos2(x) = 1, and tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x) For clarity, the functions are written here without their arguments (the "of x" part). (1 - sin2) = cos2 (1 + tan2) = (1 + sin2/cos2) = (cos2+sin2) / cos2 = 1/cos2 Multiply them: (cos2) times (1/cos2) = 1'QED'

cos2(theta) = 1 cos2(theta) + sin2(theta) = 1 so sin2(theta) = 0 cos(2*theta) = cos2(theta) - sin2(theta) = 1 - 0 = 1

No.Remember: sin2 + cos2 = 1So, in place of (1 - 2 sin2) we can write (sin2 + cos2 - 2 sin2).Massage that around slightly: (sin2 + cos2 - 2 sin2) = cos2 - sin2That's not equal to (sin2 - cos2), which is the original question we were asked.

I think it is 3.14 that equals to pi when u solve it

A pi equals 3.1415326535897932384626433832795028841971693993751058209749445923

Circumference equals Diameter times Pi, OR Diameter equals (Circumference)/(Pi). In this case, Diameter equals (130mm)/(Pi or 3.14159) equals 41.38mm

Original Equationsec2(x) = 1 + tan2(x)Leave the left side assec2(x) and for the proof, try to make the right side equal the left side.We know tan = sin/cos1 + tan2(x) = 1 + sin2(x)/cos2(x)Rewrite the 1 in terms of cos2(x)1 + sin2(x)/cos2(x) = cos2(x)/cos2(x) + sin2(x)/cos2(x)Simplify, now that the denominators have the same termscos2(x)/cos2(x) + sin2(x)/cos2(x) = [ cos2(x) + sin2(x) ] / cos2(x)Use the trig. identity: cos2(x) + sin2(x) = 1[ cos2(x) + sin2(x) ] / cos2(x) = 1 / cos2(x)Remember 1/cosine is equal to secant.\1 / cos2(x) = sec2(x)Recall, the left side the equation was: sec2(x)The right side (we just solved for is): sec2(x)sec2(x) = sec2(x)Left side = right side, Q.E.D.

Pi always equals 3.14...

-cos2(x)1 = sin2(x) +cos2(x)1 - cos2(x) = sin2(x)-cos2(x) = sin2(x) - 1

Theta equals 0 or pi.

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