answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

As we know product of no numbers at all is 1 and for this reason factorial of zero =1
and we know factorial of 1=1

User Avatar

Wiki User

15y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Why one factorial and zero factorial is same?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp
Related questions

What is zero factorial?

Zero factorial = 1


Zero factorial equal to one factorial then if we cancel the factorials on both side then the answer becomes zero equals one. do u accepts this?

0!=1! 1=1 The factorial of 0 is 1, not 0


Why factorial of 0 equals 1?

Zero factorial is one because n! = n-1! X n. For example: 4! = (4-1) X 4. If zero factorial was zero, that would mean 1! =(1-1) X 1 = 0 X 1=0. Then if 1!=0, then even 999! would equal zero. Therefore, zero factorial equals 1.


What is the last digit of factorial 99?

Zero.


What is the value of 0 factorial?

Zero factorial, written as 0!, equals 1. This is a simple math equation.


I know what exclamations in algebra mean but how would i answer 0 with an exclamation after it?

Zero factorial is equal to one. 0! = 1


Is factorial of zero is 1?

yes, 0!=1 default.


What is a factorial in mathematical terms?

The factorial of a number is the product of all the whole numbers, except zero, that are less than or equal to that number.


What is the rationale for defining 0 factorial to be 1?

What is the rationale for defining 0 factorial to be 1?AnswerThe defining 0 factorial to be 1 is not a rationale."Why is zero factorial equal to one?" is a problem that one has to prove.When 0 factorial to be 1 to be proved,the defining 0 factorial to be 1 is unvaluable.One has only one general primitive definition of a factorial number:n! = n x (n-1) x (n-2) x (n-3) x ... x 2 x 1.After that zero factorial denoted 0! is a problem that one has to acceptby convention 0!=1 as a part of definition.One has to prove zero factorial to be one.Only from the definition of a factorial number and by dividing both sidesby n one has: n!/n (n-1)! or (n-1)! = n!/nwhen n=2 one has (2-1)! = 2!/2 or 1! = 2x1/2 or 1! = 1when n=1 one has (1-1)! = 1!/1 or 0! = 1/1 or 0! = 1. =This is a proof that zero factorial is equal to one to be known.But a new proof is:A Schema Proof Without WordsThat Zero Factorial Is Equal To One.... ... ...Now the expression 0! = 1 is already a proof, not need a definitionnor a convention. So the defining 0 factorial to be 1 is unvaluable.The proof "without words" abovethat zero factorial is equal to one is a New that:*One has not to accept by convention 0!=1 anymore.*Zero factorial is not an empty product.*This Schema leads to a Law of Factorial.Note that the above schema is true but should not be used in a formal proof for 0!=1.The problem arises when you simplify the pattern formed by this schema into a MacLauren Series, which is the mathematical basis for it in the first place. Upon doing so you arrive with, . This representation illustrates that upon solving it you use 0!.In proofs you cannot define something by using that which you are defining in the definition. (ie) 0! can't be used when solving a problem within a proof of 0!.For clarification, the above series will represent the drawn out solution for the factorial of a number, i. (ie) 1×76 -6×66 +15×56 -20×46 +15×36 -6×26 +1×16 , where i=6.


Write a C-like program fragment that calculate the factorial function for argment 12 with do while loop?

#!/usr/bin/perl print factorial($ARGV[11]); sub factorial { my($num) = @_; if($num == 1) { return 1; # stop at 1, factorial doesn't multiply times zero } else { return $num * factorial($num - 1); # call factorial function recursively } }


Is factorial same as permutation?

No. Simple permutations are composed of 2 factorials.


What is the value of 9 factorial plus 6 factorial?

The value of 9 factorial plus 6 factorial is 363,600