As n gets very small, 1/n goes towards infinity. A multiplicative inverse of 0 would be some number x, such that 0x=1. This is impossible with the real numbers we use, since 0x=0 for any number x. One might be tempted to invent a new number (calling it "infinity", "nullity", or any other name) that would be the inverse of 0. Of course, then you're not dealing with real numbers anymore, you're dealing with real numbers plus this invented number. There are serious issues even with this approach. Again, let x be this "multiplicative inverse of 0". Then 0*1=0 and 0*2=0. So 0*1 = 0*2. Multiply both sides by x to get x*0*1 = x*0*2. Since x*0 is 1, this means 1*1 = 1*2. So 1=2, which is an absurd conclusion. As you can see, there are good reasons not to allow a multiplicative inverse for 0 - it breaks all the laws of multiplication we're accustomed to.
Chat with our AI personalities
There is no multiplicative inverse of 0. By definition, when you multiply a number by its multiplicative inverse, the product is 1. However, when you multiply 0 by anything, the product is 0. Those two statements could not logically co-exist if there were any multiplicative inverse of 0, so there is no such thing.
Assuming the question is about the multiplicative inverse, the answer is, -1. It is its own multiplicative inverse.
The multiplicative inverse of -3 is -(1/3) or negative one-third. The multiplicative inverse of a number is the number that you multiply it by to get a result of 1 (the multiplicative identity). So, since -3 times -(1/3) is 1, -(1/3) is the multiplicative inverse of -3. Similarly, +3 is the ADDITIVE inverse of -3. The additive inverse of a number is the number you add to it to get a result of 0 (the additive identity). So, since -3 + (+3) = 0, +3 is the additive inverse of -3. The original answer given here was that the multiplicative inverse of -3 is +3, which is flat incorrect.
38/7 x 7/38 = 1 = multiplicative inverse 38/7 + -38/7 = 0 = additive inverse
-9; the multiplicative inverse: -1/9