Because Euler proved it! (No, I can't!)
Minus square root of 2, minus square root of 3, minus pi, minus e, etc. Or, to be a bit more fancy, 1 - pi, 2 - pi, 3 - pi, pi - 4, pi - 5, 2 - e, e - 3, square root of 2 minus 2, etc.
you need to know natural logarithms3e to the 2x-1 power = 8(2x-1) ln e = ln (8/3)ln e = 1(2x-1) = ln(8/3) = 0.982x = 1.98x = 0.99
What is the area bounded by the graph of the function f(x)=1-e^-x over the interval [-1, 2]?
Yes, an irrational number divided by an irrational number will usually be an irrational number, but not always. For example, pi / (3pi) is 1/3, which is a rational number, but pi/e is an irrational number.
negative one.
i (taken to be sqrt(-1) for this question) requires that you know a bit about writing complex numbers. i = e^(i*pi/2) so i^i = (e^(i*pi/2))^i which equals e^(i*i*pi/2) since i*i = -1 we get e^(-pi/2) so i^i = e^(-pi/2) which is roughly .207879576
It is NOT rational, but it IS real.Start with Euler's formula: e^ix = cos(x) + i*sin(x) for all x.When x = pi/2,e^(i*pi/2) = cos(pi/2) + i*sin(pi/2) = 0 + i*1 = ior i = e^(i*pi/2)Raising both sides to the power i givesi^i = e^[i*(i*pi/2)] = e^[i*i*pi/2]and since i*i = -1,i^i = e^(-pi/2) = 0.20788, approx.
-1. It is a version of Euler's formula.
Not necessarily. i times pi is not a whole number, and yet e to the power of i times pi is equal to -1.
y = exWhatever your value of x is, you raise e to that power. e is a "transcendental" number like pi, and it equals 2.718281828459045 ...
When x = 3.806663, tan(e^x) = 1.
That's a Gaussian distribution.
The answer depends on what the question is!
Euler's formula is important because it relates famous constants, such as pi, zero, Euler's number 'e', and an imaginary number 'i' in one equation. The formula is (e raised to the i times pi) plus 1 equals 0.
Many properties. For example, 1 + 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4! + ... = e. This is not true for pi.
yes he invented pi
'e' is an imaginary number, multiplied by anything gives an imaginary result