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An inverse, without any qualification, is taken to be the multiplicative inverse. is

The inverse of a number, x (x not 0), is 1 divided by x. Any number multiplied by its inverse must be equal to 1.

There is also an additive inverse. For any number y, the additive inverse is -y. And the sum of the two must always be 0.

Q: What are inverse numbers?

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All rational numbers, with the exception of zero (0), have a multiplicative inverse. In fact, all real numbers (again, except for zero) have multiplicative inverses, though the inverses of irrational numbers are themselves irrational. Even imaginary numbers have multiplicative inverses (the multiplicative inverse of 5i is -0.2i - as you can see the inverse itself is also imaginary). Even complex numbers (the sum of an imaginary number and a real number) have multiplicative inverses (the inverse of [5i + 2] is [-5i/29 + 2/29] - similar to irrational and imaginary numbers, the inverse of a complex number is itself complex). The onlynumber, in any set of numbers, that does not have a multiplicative inverse is zero.

If you mean each side of 9 then the integers or whole numbers are 8 and 10

I believe it is because 0 does not have an inverse element.

Two numbers, which when added together result in zero, are called each other's additive inverse. That is, for two given numbers x and y, if x + y = 0, then y is the additive inverse of x and x is the additive inverse of y.

They're both whole numbers. Factors go into numbers, numbers go into multiples. They have an inverse relationship. If A is a factor of B, then B is a multiple of A.

Related questions

The inverse function of multiplication is division.

The additive inverse is the sum of two numbers that will equal zero. The additive inverse of -18 is 18.

All rational numbers, with the exception of zero (0), have a multiplicative inverse. In fact, all real numbers (again, except for zero) have multiplicative inverses, though the inverses of irrational numbers are themselves irrational. Even imaginary numbers have multiplicative inverses (the multiplicative inverse of 5i is -0.2i - as you can see the inverse itself is also imaginary). Even complex numbers (the sum of an imaginary number and a real number) have multiplicative inverses (the inverse of [5i + 2] is [-5i/29 + 2/29] - similar to irrational and imaginary numbers, the inverse of a complex number is itself complex). The onlynumber, in any set of numbers, that does not have a multiplicative inverse is zero.

Cardinal numbers, natural numbers and ordinal numbers have a non-example of inverse because they lack additive inverses within their respective sets.

it is bold

One

this is no Inverse property for multiplication

Just apply the inverse operation to your answer. If your answer was correct, and you apply the inverse operation correctly, then you'll end up with the numbers you started with ... the numbers in the original problem. (If it wasn't, or you don't, then you won't.)

A multiplicative inverse for 2 numbers exists if the 2 numbers are coprime, i.e. their greatest common divisor (or gcd) is 1. However, if your question refers to just a singular number, virtually all real numbers (with the exception of zero) have a multiplicative inverse.

Everything but zero.

Find the additive inverse (opposite) of: 18/23

On the set of all real numbers ZERO has no multiplicative inverse. For other sets there may be other numbers too, so please define your set!