The way to disprove an antiderivative is to simply differentiate the function and see if it matches the integral expression. Remember that an antiderivative expression must include a term often coined "C-" an arbitrary constant. For example, ∫(x^3 +14x)dx= (1/4)X^4+ 7X^2 +C. To verify that this is correct, take the derivative. You get x^3 +14x.
The antiderivative of a function which is equal to 0 everywhere is a function equal to 0 everywhere.
The fundamental theorum of calculus states that a definite integral from a to b is equivalent to the antiderivative's expression of b minus the antiderivative expression of a.
-e-x + C.
-1
You can't, unless it's an initial value problem. If f(x) is an antiderivative to g(x), then so is f(x) + c, for any c at all.
Not really. He did not set out to prove anyone wrong. His purpose was to explain things in the light of new discoveries and knowledge.
927,742. And I challange anyone to PROVE me wrong.
No, but no one can prove god to be true either.
An antiderivative, F, is normally defined as the indefinite integral of a function f. F is differentiable and its derivative is f.If you do not assume that f is continuous or even integrable, then your definition of antiderivative is required.
The antiderivative of 2x is x2.
1,976,887 and I defy anyone to prove me wrong.
Prove Me Wrong was created in 1991.
Prove You Wrong was created on 1991-09-24.
Friends, faulty logic is for fun - nothing serious about it. Yes, it's wrong, however the reason beneath is hidden :) So try and prove that 1divided by 2 is not 0.5. No, because it is, and if they do, there is something wrong with it.
An experiment can prove they are wrong or right ...:)
The antiderivative of a function which is equal to 0 everywhere is a function equal to 0 everywhere.
35x2