Friends, faulty logic is for fun - nothing serious about it. Yes, it's wrong, however the reason beneath is hidden :) So try and prove that 1divided by 2 is not 0.5.
No, because it is, and if they do, there is something wrong with it.
0.05
.05 or 1/20
An even number can be divided by 2 evenly. An odd number will have a remainder of 1 when divided by 2. 6 is an even number.
-16 ÷ -2 = (-1)(16)/(-1)(2) = 16/2 = 8
(2 - 1) * 0 = 0 Thus 2 - 1 = 0/0 = 0 and therefore 2 = 1
There is no such shape. If anyone can prove otherwise, I'd be grateful if they'd let me know.
1
It leaves a remainder of 1 when divided by 2. Or, if the number is n, then n-1 or n+1 is even (divisible by 2).
(100 - 100)/(100 - 100) invert and multiply (100 - 100) * 1/(100 - 100) 100 - 100 ----------------------is a factor in both numerator and denominator of the multiplicands , so canceled. = 1 -----
0.05
the probability of a house will be burglarized is = 5% which is = .05 the probability of a house will NOT be burglarized is = (1 - .05) the probability of a second house will NOT be burglarized is = (1-.05)*(1-.05)= (1-.05)^2 the probability of a third house will NOT be burglarized is= (1-.05)*(1-.05)(1-.05)= (1-.05)^3 so, the probability of NONE = (1-.05)^10 = .598736939 = .5987
.05 as a fraction is 1/20 in its simplest form