infinity?
Infinity over zero is undefined, or complex infinity depending on numbers you are including in your number system.
X over infinity does not exist but you can predict what it would be as you approach infinity, the limit, so to speak. It should be zero, if it does approach a number.
0 is your answer (not a number close to zero). Or mathematicially more precise: approaches zero. Remember that infinity is not a number but is is treated as if it is something larger than any number. If we divide 1 by bigger and bigger numbers, then the quotient get closer and closer to 0, therefore 1 divided by infinity is zero. We can even say that 1 divided by negative infinity equals zero because if we divide 1 by a negative million, or negative billion, etc. the quotient goes to 0.
the limit [as x-->5] of the function f(x)=2x is 5 the limit [as x-->infinity] of the function f(x) = 2x is infinity the limit [as x-->infinity] of the function f(x) = 1/x is 0 the limit [as x-->infinity] of the function f(x) = -x is -infinity
Calculus is about applying the idea of limits to functions in various ways. For example, the limit of the slope of a curve as the length of the curve approaches zero, or the limit of the area of rectangle as its length goes to zero. Limits are also used in the study of infinite series as in the limit of a function of xas x approaches infinity.
No, limit can tend to any finite number including 0. It is also possible that the limit does not tend to any finite value or approaches infinity. Example: The limit of x^2+5 tend to 6 as x approaches -1.
X over infinity does not exist but you can predict what it would be as you approach infinity, the limit, so to speak. It should be zero, if it does approach a number.
Yes, infinity over zero is considered an indeterminate form. This is because while the numerator approaches infinity, the denominator approaches zero, leading to a situation where the expression does not have a well-defined limit. Depending on the context of the limit, the result can vary significantly, making it indeterminate rather than a fixed value.
Yes. The rule is used to find the limit of functions which are an indeterminate form; that is, the limit would involve either 0/0, infinity/infinity, 0 x infinity, 1 to the power of infinity, zero or infinity to the power of zero, or infinity minus infinity. So while it is not used on all functions, it is used for many.
It is undefined. In infinities and infinitessimals we use limits, so we see trends as we approach a limit. However this gives different answers, The limit as A approaches infinity of A x 0 is 0. But the limit as B approaches zero of infinty x B is infinite. To be well-defined both of these answers need to be the same.
Division by zero is not allowed/defined. So you cannot take 'one over zero', or have zero in the denominator.Without going too technical, a person might say that 1/0 is infinity, and it sounds good. But if you have a function [say f(x) = 1/x] and take the limit of f(x) as x approaches zero, then f(x) approaches infinity as x approaches from the right, but it approaches negative infinity as you approach from the left, therefore the limit does not exist.
Zero to any non-zero real number power is equal to zero. Unless a function evaluates to 'zero to the infinity power' then you must take limits to determine what the limit evaluates to. Zero to the zero power is undefined, but you can take a limit of the underlying function to determine if the limit exists.
The slopes of vertical lines and the results of divisions by 0 do not exist because there are multiple answers. A line that is vertical can have a slope of infinity or negative infinity. Same with division by zero. Picture the graph 1/x. As the graph approaches zero from the left, it goes toward negative infinity, then jumps to positive infinity. There are two answers, and neither of them are real numbers. The limits do exist though. The limit of 1/x as x approaches zero from the left is negative infinity. and the limit as it approaches the right is positive infinity.
When any number is divided by infinity, the result approaches zero but never actually reaches it. This is because infinity is not a specific number but rather a concept representing unboundedness. Mathematically, the limit of any finite number divided by infinity as infinity approaches infinity is zero.
No, because infinity has no limit.
0 is your answer (not a number close to zero). Or mathematicially more precise: approaches zero. Remember that infinity is not a number but is is treated as if it is something larger than any number. If we divide 1 by bigger and bigger numbers, then the quotient get closer and closer to 0, therefore 1 divided by infinity is zero. We can even say that 1 divided by negative infinity equals zero because if we divide 1 by a negative million, or negative billion, etc. the quotient goes to 0.
The answer depends on the side from which x approaches 0. If from the negative side, then the limit is negative infinity whereas if from the positive side, it is positive infinity.
TIME goes to infinity so that LIFE goes to zero. Rafaqat khan