Depends, is there any triangles involved? The Pythagorean Theorem is used for A2+B2=C2, which is a three sides figure, and where did you see thsi question?
A "Pythagorean triple" is a set of 3 numbers that fits the Pythagorean Theorem.So your question is: "Do 2, 6, and 8 form a Pythagorean triple ?", and the answeris either 'yes' or 'no'.(2)2 = 4(6)2 = 364 + 36 = 40(8)2 = 6440 is not equal to 64.So the answer is "no".
You take the information you're given, make sure you understand the question, write down the Pythagorean Theorem, then look at it to discover how it connects the information you have to the information you need to find.
usually Pythagorean is named after pythagoras
Pythagorean triplets
3,4,5 1,2,3 these are sets of pythagorean triples
The numbers of 3, 4 and 5 are an example of a Pythagorean triplet
Oh yes, the Pythagorean Theorem has been proven.
The Pythagorean theorem uses the right triangle.
Pythagoras was well known for the Pythagorean Theorem.
Since there are an infinite amount of whole numbers to make Pythagorean triples, there would be an infinite amount of Pythagorean triples to make.
There are infinitely many Pythagorean triples. To find a Pythagorean triple take two positive integers x, y with x > y. A Pythagorean triple is of the form x2 - y2, 2xy, x2 + y2.