No.
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A "Pythagorean triple" is a set of 3 numbers that fits the Pythagorean Theorem.So your question is: "Do 2, 6, and 8 form a Pythagorean triple ?", and the answeris either 'yes' or 'no'.(2)2 = 4(6)2 = 364 + 36 = 40(8)2 = 6440 is not equal to 64.So the answer is "no".
The combination 5, 12 and 13 is a Pythagorean triple.
3 4 5 6 8 10 9 40 41 20 21 29 9 12 15 ...and factors of those such as the first 2 examples.
6, 8, and 10 is simply a scaled up version of a 3,4,5 triangle (simply double each side). Since 3,4,5 is a Pythagorean triple, so is the scaled up triangle. Alternatively, since 6, 8, and 10 are integers (whole numbers) that fulfill the Pythagorean theorem (62 + 82 = 102 ), they are a Pythagorean triple.
6/12 + 8/12 = 6+8/12 = 14/12 = 7/6 = 11/6