Yes when the straight line passes through the origin (0, 0) on the Cartesian plane it has no y intercept.
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If you mean: y = -2x-3 then the slope is -2 and the y intercept is -3
explain why a function has at most one y-intercept
The y-intercept is the value of the function (if it exists) when x = 0.
The function y = -1 has no x-intercept; its graph is a horizontal line with a y-intercept of -1.
Yes.