Yes. The simple answer is that rational fractions are infinitely dense. A longer proof follows:
Suppose you have two fractions a/b and c/d where a, b, c and d are integers and b, d are positive integers.
Without loss of generality, assume a/b < c/d.
The inequality implies that ad < bc so that bc-ad>0 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . (I)
Consider (ad + bc)/(2bd)
Then (ad+bc)/2bd - a/b = (ad+bc)/2bd - 2ad/2bd = (bc-ad)/2bd
By definition, b and d are positive so bd is positive and by result (I), the numerator is positive.
That is to say, (ad+bc)/2bd - a/b > 0 or (ad+bc)/2bd > a/b.
Similarly, by considering c/d - (ad+bc)/2bd is can be shown that c/d > (ad+bc)/2bd.
Combining these results,
a/b < (ad+bc)/2bd < c/d.
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Yes. The set of rational numbers is infinitely dense.If p/q and r/s are any two fractions then (p/q + r/s)/2 is a fraction which is between the two.
There is no such fraction. Fractions are infinitely dense and, between any two fractions, there are infinitely many more fractions. It is, therefore, always possible to find a larger proper fraction.For example,9/10 < 99/100 < 999/1000 < 9999/10000 and so on, for ever and ever.There is no greatest fraction.
A fraction always has one number on top (the numerator), and another number on the bottom (the denominator). If it doesn't have both of those, then it's not a fraction.
There can be no such thing as a nearest fraction since, given any fraction, it is always possible to find a fraction that is nearer.
Any fraction divided by an equivalent fraction will always equal one.Any fraction divided by an equivalent fraction will always equal one.Any fraction divided by an equivalent fraction will always equal one.Any fraction divided by an equivalent fraction will always equal one.