answersLogoWhite

0

Yes.

Take any rational number p.

Let a = any number that is not a power of 10, so that log(a) is irrational.

and let b = p/log(a).

log(a) is irrational so 1/log(a) must be irrational. That is, both log(a) and log(b) are irrational.

But log(a)*log(b) = log(a)*[p/log(a)] = p which is rational.

In the above case all logs are to base 10, but any other base can be used.

User Avatar

Wiki User

10y ago

Still curious? Ask our experts.

Chat with our AI personalities

RossRoss
Every question is just a happy little opportunity.
Chat with Ross
ViviVivi
Your ride-or-die bestie who's seen you through every high and low.
Chat with Vivi
MaxineMaxine
I respect you enough to keep it real.
Chat with Maxine

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Can you multiply two irrational logarithms to get a rational answer?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp