Yes.
Take any rational number p.
Let a = any number that is not a power of 10, so that log(a) is irrational.
and let b = p/log(a).
log(a) is irrational so 1/log(a) must be irrational. That is, both log(a) and log(b) are irrational.
But log(a)*log(b) = log(a)*[p/log(a)] = p which is rational.
In the above case all logs are to base 10, but any other base can be used.
If you multiply two irrational numbers, the result can be rational, or irrational.
Since the sum of two rational numbers is rational, the answer will be the same as for the sum of an irrational and a single rational number. It is always irrational.
yes * * * * * No. Rational and irrational numbers are two DISJOINT subsets of the real numbers. That is, no rational number is irrational and no irrational is rational.
It is always rational.
They are always rational.
If you multiply two irrational numbers, the result can be rational, or irrational.
No; since pi is irrational if you multiply it by a rational number it is still irrational
No. The square root of two is an irrational number. If you multiply the square root of two by the square root of two, you get two which is a rational number.
As a general rule you don't; you do if you choose them carefully.
Since the sum of two rational numbers is rational, the answer will be the same as for the sum of an irrational and a single rational number. It is always irrational.
yes * * * * * No. Rational and irrational numbers are two DISJOINT subsets of the real numbers. That is, no rational number is irrational and no irrational is rational.
The square root of 2 times the square root of 2 is rational.
The product of 2 rationals must be rational. The product of a rational and an irrational is irrational (unless the rational is 0) The product of two irrationals can be either rational or irrational.
There is no number which can be rational and irrational so there is no point in asking "how".
Can be rational or irrational.
It is always rational.
They are always rational.