In between any two rational numbers there is an irrational number. In between any two irrational numbers there is a rational number.
Rational numbers can be expressed as fractions whereas irrational numbers can't be expressed as fractions
It is true and false. It cannot be proved.
yes
For any given subset, yes, because there are an infinite number of irrational numbers for each rational number. But for the set of ALL real numbers, both are infinite in number, even though the vast majority of real numbers would be irrational.
In between any two rational numbers there is an irrational number. In between any two irrational numbers there is a rational number.
In between any two rational numbers there is an irrational number. In between any two Irrational Numbers there is a rational number.
Rational numbers can be expressed as fractions whereas irrational numbers can't be expressed as fractions
Yes. For example, if you multiply the square root of 2 (an irrational number) by itself, the answer is 2 (a rational number). The golden ratio (Phi, approx. 1.618) multiplied by (1/Phi) (both irrational numbers) equals 1 (rational). However, this is not necessarily true for all irrational numbers.
It is false.
It will be rational.
It is always true.
False.
No, that is not true.
No, it is always true
No, it is always true.
It is always FALSE.