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At first this question sounds nearly meaningless, but I have a hunch of what you
may be talking about. It's just a hunch:
I think you live in the USA, and you've noticed that when you Want to convert
some of your dollars into Another Country's money, you almost always multiply
your dollars by a number greater than ' 1 ' to find out how much of the other
country's money you can get for them.
The answer to that one is simple: There are very few countries ... not many, but
there are some ... where the basic unit of their currency is worth 1 US dollar or
more. Putting it another way, 1 US dollar will buy more than one unit of currency
in most other countries.
Everything is relative. Like, if that wasn't your question, then my answer to it is
equally meaningless.
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Can a government spending multiplier be a value of less than 1?
Quite simply, no. The Spending multiplier, even on government spending, will always have a value of greater than one. It really is self-evident; for that money to be subjected to a multiplier, it must be circulating multiple times, therefore the first circulation (the initial spending) would result in a multiplier of one, and subsequent spends would increase the multiplier further
Explain the derivative functions of money?
Explain the derivative functions of money?
If the currency drain ratio is 0.38 and desired reserve ratio is 0.002 what is the UK money multiplier?
3.612
Which is greater .40 or .70?
Which is more money- 40 cents or 70 cents- and that would apply to your question.
What is greater number .100 or .057?
.100 is greater than .057Think in the terms of money .100 one dollar / 057 pennies .100 is larger.
