G(x) = log(2x) + 2, obviously!
g(x) = x/2
Definition of the inverse of a function.Let f and g be two functions such thatf(g(x)) = x for every x in the domain of g andg(f(x)) = x for every x in the domain of f.The function g is the inverse of the function f, and the domain of f is equal to the range of g, and vice versa.Example: Find the inverse of y1 = 2x + 7Solutiony1 = 2x + 7 interchange x and y;x = 2y1 + 7 solve for y;x - 7 = 2y1 + 7 -7 subtract 7 to both sides;x - 7 = 2y1 divide by 2 both sides;(x - 7)/2 = y1 replace y1 with y2;y2 = (x - 7)/2Thus, the inverse of y1 = 2x +7 is y2 = (x -7)/2Let's check if this is true according to the above definition:Let y1 = f(x) = 2x +7 and y2 = g(x) = (x -7)/21. f(g(x))= x ?f(x) = 2x + 7f((x - 7)/2) = 2[(x -7)/2] + 7 = x - 7 + 7 = x True2. g(f(x) = x ?g(x) = (x - 7)/2g(2x + 7) = [(2x + 7) - 7]/2 = 2x/2 = x True
No. It is a meaningless equation. You may have intended to say: 2 times the sum of x and g is equal to 2x plus 2g.
x plus 2 = x + 2 x plus x = 2x
f(x) = 2x + 1 g(x) = x^2 - 7 So f*g(x) = f(g(x)) = f(x^2 - 7) = 2*(x^2 - 7) + 1 = 2*x^2 - 14 + 1 = 2*x^2 - 13
G(x) = log(2x) + 2, obviously!
x^2+10
g(x) = x/2
It could be: 2(x-8.5) = 2x-17
Nope.* * * * *The above answer is so wrong!Suppose f and g are two transformations wheref(x) = 2x, andg(x) = x2Then f(g(x)) = f(x2) = 2x2Whileg(f(x)) = g(2x) = (2x)2=4x2Therefore f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) only when x = 0
If f(x)=2z^2+5 and g(x)=x^2-2, fine (f-g)(x)
(f+g)(x)=8x^2+4x-4
You want to identify the relationship between two functions, namely f(x) = 2x and g(x) = 2x + 1 - 3. Let's take a closer look: Function f(x) = 2x: This is a linear function with a slope (gradient) coefficient of 2 and no vertical shift (y-intercept at 0). Function g(x) = 2x + 1 - 3: This is also a linear function, but with a vertical shift of -2 (subtracting 3 from 1, so -2). It has the same slope (gradient) coefficient as f(x), which is 2. In this case, g(x) is f(x) that has been "shifted" downwards by 2 units. The function g(x) has a similar shape to f(x), but its position is different on the y-axis.
Definition of the inverse of a function.Let f and g be two functions such thatf(g(x)) = x for every x in the domain of g andg(f(x)) = x for every x in the domain of f.The function g is the inverse of the function f, and the domain of f is equal to the range of g, and vice versa.Example: Find the inverse of y1 = 2x + 7Solutiony1 = 2x + 7 interchange x and y;x = 2y1 + 7 solve for y;x - 7 = 2y1 + 7 -7 subtract 7 to both sides;x - 7 = 2y1 divide by 2 both sides;(x - 7)/2 = y1 replace y1 with y2;y2 = (x - 7)/2Thus, the inverse of y1 = 2x +7 is y2 = (x -7)/2Let's check if this is true according to the above definition:Let y1 = f(x) = 2x +7 and y2 = g(x) = (x -7)/21. f(g(x))= x ?f(x) = 2x + 7f((x - 7)/2) = 2[(x -7)/2] + 7 = x - 7 + 7 = x True2. g(f(x) = x ?g(x) = (x - 7)/2g(2x + 7) = [(2x + 7) - 7]/2 = 2x/2 = x True
No. It is a meaningless equation. You may have intended to say: 2 times the sum of x and g is equal to 2x plus 2g.
it was C for anyone who comes across this question…