0
What else can I help you with?
Does every integer have a multiplicative inverse?
No, it does not.
Why doesn't every real number have a multiplicative inverse?
The only real (or complex) number which does not have a multiplicative inverse is 0. There is nothing you can multiply by 0 to get 1.
Does every integer have an additive inverse?
Yes.
Does every integer have an opposite?
An additive opposite, yes. A multiplicative one, no.
What an multiplicative inverse property and real number?
For every real number, x, which is not zero, there exists a real number x' such that x * x' = x' * x = 1, the multiplicative identity.
Does every nonzero fraction has a multiplicative inverse?
Yes
Does every integer have a multiplicative inverse?
No, it does not.
Does every square matrix have an inverse?
No. A square matrix has an inverse if and only if its determinant is nonzero.
Why doesn't every real number have a multiplicative inverse?
The only real (or complex) number which does not have a multiplicative inverse is 0. There is nothing you can multiply by 0 to get 1.
What is the multiplication inverse of 8?
The multiplicative inverse is when you multiply a certain number, and the product is itself, the number. So, the multiplicative inverse of 8 is of course, 1. For every number, the multiplicative number is 1, because a certain number times 1 is equal to the certain number. It's simple!!
Does every integer have an additive inverse?
Yes.
Does every non-zero number have a multiplicative inverse?
Every non zero number has a multiplicative inverse, which is 1 divided by that number. This stands for both real and complex numbers. This can be proved by letting x=some non zero number. x*(1/x)=x/x=1, therefore the multiplicative inverse of x is 1/x.
Does every integer have an opposite?
An additive opposite, yes. A multiplicative one, no.
A multiplicative inverse of 5 module 7 is?
A multiplicative inverse of 5 mod7 would be a number n ( not a unique one) such that 5n=1Let's look at the possible numbers5x1=5mode 75x2=10=3 mod 75x3=15=1 mod 7 THAT WILL DO IT3 is the multiplicative inverse of 5 mod 7.What about the others? 5x4=20, that is -1 mod 7 or 65x5=25 which is 4 mod 75x6=30 which is -5 or 2 mod 7How did we know it existed? Because 7 is a prime. For every prime number p and positive integer n, there exists a finite field with pn elements. This is an important theorem in abstract algebra. Since it is a field, it must have a multiplicative inverse. So the numbers mod 7 make up a field and hence have a multiplicative inverse.
What an multiplicative inverse property and real number?
For every real number, x, which is not zero, there exists a real number x' such that x * x' = x' * x = 1, the multiplicative identity.
What is the absolute value of every nonzero integer?
Positive
What property says that for every number other than 0 its reciprocal is the one number by which it can be multiplied to get 1?
Multiplicative inverse.
