The area under a normal distribution is one since, by definition, the sum of any series of probabilities is one and, therefore, the integral (or area under the curve) of any probability distribution from negative infinity to infinity is one. However, if you take an interval of a normal distribution, its area can be anywhere between 0 and 1.
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Look in any standard normal distribution table; one is given in the related link. Find the area for 2.43 and 1.52; then take the area for 2.43 and subtract the area for 1.52 and that will be the answer. Therefore, .9925 - .9357 = .0568 = area under the normal distribution curve between z equals 1.52 and z equals 2.43.
One.
Yes, and is equal to 1. This is true for normal distribution using any mean and variance.
It is 0.839
The area under N(0,1) from -1 to 1 = 0.6826