Use Mannings Equation: Q=(1.486/n)*(A)*(R)^(2/3)*S^(1/2) Q = Flow (CFS) n = Roughness Coefficient A = Cross sectional flow Area of Fluid (FT*FT) R = Hydraulic Radius (FT) S = Slope (FT/FT)
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For laminar flow? For a full pipe? for a 3/4-full pipe? For a 1/2-full pipe? It all makes quite a difference. Please repost your question with a little more information. It would also help to for us to know the coefficient of friction of the inside of the pipe.
If we assume that the pipe is completely full of oil, it would just be the volume of the pipe = pi * r2 * l, where pi = 3.14159, r = radius, and l = length of the pipe. If the pipe is not full, then multiply the volume by the percentage of oil in the pipe. For example, if 50% full, then multiply by .5. If the pipe bends, take into account the different volume of the bend. If the bend is 90 degrees, this can be accomplished by taking the average length of the two bent segments for the length.
by multiplying the pipe size with the number of welded joints.regardsZH
The volume of flow will be the same, but the velocity will be increase through the 15ml pipe. Q=v*A.
That depends entirely on the viscosity of the liquid in the pipe ! Water would flow faster than oil !