If you have more than one mode then you have more than one mode! There is nothing strange about that. It is one of the weaknesses of the ode as a statistical measure.
Sets of numbers can have more than one mode.
it is ok if there is less than 2 mode if you have three just leave it there is no mode
Because more than two numbers can occur in the data most often
No. Some distributions and some sets of observations can have more than one modes. In such cases there is no unique mode.
If you have more than one mode then you have more than one mode! There is nothing strange about that. It is one of the weaknesses of the ode as a statistical measure.
Sets of numbers can have more than one mode.
it is ok if there is less than 2 mode if you have three just leave it there is no mode
The mode can be more than one number
There can be more than one mode.
Because more than two numbers can occur in the data most often
the mode is the number that occurs the most (there can be more than one) "consider the following" mode sounds like most mode most mode most see
No. Some distributions and some sets of observations can have more than one modes. In such cases there is no unique mode.
In any given set, the mode is the number that appears most often. If no number appears more frequently than any other, there is no mode. It is also possible to have more than one mode. Ex. (10, 17, 20, 45, 68) This set has no mode.
The mode is the most common answers in a data set. Sometimes there can be more than one mode so if there is a single mode it is unique. It there are two it is bimodal.
more than one lynx is call lynxes
If you are referring to statistics, to find the mode, you find the number that occurs most frequently in a set of numbers. There may be more than one mode.