One can define an infinite number of fractions to successively approximate pi, and get closer and closer to pi's value. There is no closest fraction to pi. No matter how close the fraction is to pi you can always find one that is closer.
There are no "closest" fraction because rational numbers are infinitely dense. If for example, you thought that f1 was the closest fraction, then f2 = 0.5*(f1 + 0.0032677165354331) would be closer. And then f3 = 0.5*(f2 + 0.0032677165354331) would be closer still, and so on.
67 is an integer, not a fraction, and it is closer to 012 (= 12).
-1
No, but it is closer than .08
There is no possible answer. For any given fraction, half that fraction is another fraction and it will be closer to 0. And then half of that will be closer still, and then half of that ... . Hope you get the idea.
One can define an infinite number of fractions to successively approximate pi, and get closer and closer to pi's value. There is no closest fraction to pi. No matter how close the fraction is to pi you can always find one that is closer.
One can define an infinite number of fractions to successively approximate pi, and get closer and closer to pi's value. There is no closest fraction to pi. No matter how close the fraction is to pi you can always find one that is closer
There are no "closest" fraction because rational numbers are infinitely dense. If for example, you thought that f1 was the closest fraction, then f2 = 0.5*(f1 + 0.0032677165354331) would be closer. And then f3 = 0.5*(f2 + 0.0032677165354331) would be closer still, and so on.
.07 is closer to 0.
Fractions are infinitely dense and this means that between any two fractions there an infinite number of fractions. If any fraction, f, laid claims to being the nearest, there would be infinitely many fractions between 0 and f and so infinitely many fractions which were closer to 0. This means that f could not be the closest. The argument can be used again and again and so there cannot be a fraction closest to 0.
There is none. There will always be a fraction closer to 1 then the last.
67 is an integer, not a fraction, and it is closer to 012 (= 12).
-1
0.35 meters is closer to 0.
No, but it is closer than .08
Rational numbers are infinitely dense and so there is no such number. If for example, you considered F1 to be the fraction that was closet to 0 then what about half that number? F2 = (F1)/2 is closer to 0. And then what about F3 = (F2)/2? This could go on for ever.