a: 20/60 = 1/3 and b: 40/60 = 2/3
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It isnt possible for it to b an improper fraction. For it to b an improper fraction, it has to first b a mixed no
To divide a fraction by itself is actually pretty easy. Let's say that we have a fraction which is a/b (so a and b could be any numbers and this could be any fraction). Then, we can do the following: (a/b)/(a/b) = (a/b)*(b/a) (in other words, when dividing by a fraction, you can do this by multiplying by the fraction flipped upside down) = (a*b)/(b*a) = 1 (because a and b cancel each other out) Therefore, any fraction (or indeed any number at all) divided by itself will give the answer of 1.
Suppose you have the improper fraction a/b where, since the fraction is improper, a > b.Divide a by b so that you have a quotient cand a remainder d.Then a/b = c d/b.
Suppose you have a fraction in the form a/b where a and b are integers and b > 0. Since the fraction is improper, a must be greater than b. Divide a ÷ b. Suppose b goes into a k times and leaves a remainder of r. Then a/b = k r/b
The mixed fraction a b/c = (ac + b)/c