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The answer is negative four BECAUSE... 20/5 is POSITIVE four 20/-5 is a NEGATIVE four because a positive divided by a negative is a negative. Easy way to remember negs/pos: n * p = n p* n = n p * p = p n * n = p n / p = n p / n = n p / p = p n / n = p There are always two ways to get a positive, and two ways to get a negative. Very simple.
Multiplying by a negative changes the sign of the original number. P x N = N N x N = P Multiplying by a positive keeps the sign of the original number. P x P = P N x P = N
Proof: P{T>n+m/T>n}=P{T>n+m,T>n}/P{T>n} (Bayes theorem) =P{T>n+m}/P{T>n} =((1-p)^(n+m))/(1-p)^n = (1-p)^(n+m-n) = (1-p)^m (1-p)^m = {T>m} So T>m has the same probability as T>m+n given that T>n, which means it doesn't care (or don't remember) that n phases had passed.
p+n=x
E= P x r x (1 + r)n / ((1+r)n -1) Here p=principal amount r = interesr rate per month(ex: if interest rate per annum is 10% then 10/(12*100)) n= tenure in months