Their count. Two in the first case, one in the second.
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There are infinitely many rational numbers, not just one.
They are not. They are countably infinite. That is, there is a one-to-one mapping between the set of rational numbers and the set of counting numbers.
Yes. This is the same as asking for one rational number to be subtracted from another; to do this each rational number is made into an equivalent rational number so that the two rational numbers have the same denominator, and then the numerators are subtracted which gives a rational number which may possibly be simplified.
A rational number is one which can be expressed as a ratio of two integers.
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