50/50
Assuming probability of having a boy is P(B) = 1/2, and of having a girl is P(G) = 1/2,the probability of having 3 boys for 4 kids (with out regard to the girl to be the first,second, third or fourth kid) is;P(3B1G) = 4C3 [P(B)]4 = 4 (1/2)4 = 0.250 = 25%The factor 4 comes because there are 4 possibilities for the order in which the girl cancome out.
If we consider there is a 50% chance for having a boy and 50% for having a girl*, there is : - 12,5% chance of having no boys; - 37,5% chance of having 1 boy; - 37,5% chance of having 2 boys; - 12,5% chance of having 3 boys. Therefore, there is 50% chance of having at least two boys. *The odds are more like 51% for having a boy and 49% for having a girl, but it doesn't really matters.
There is no simple answer to the question because the children's genders are not independent events. They depend on the parents' ages and their genes.However, if you assume that they are independent events then, given that the probability of a boy is approx 0.52, the probability of three boys and a girl is 0.2669.
There is only one girl out of 12 students so the probability that the girl is selected is 1/12.
These events are independent; so the probability of a girl is 0.5.
50/50
The probability of having a boy or a girl is always 50/50 each time, regardless of previous outcomes. So the theoretical probability of having a girl after having three boys in a row is still 50%.
Assuming the probability of having a boy is 1/2, and that the probabilities are independent: Probability of 1 girl and 12 boys = (1/2)13 * 13 = 0.001587..., which is around 1/630
(assuming that the probability of having a girl or a boy is 50/50) Looking from beforehand, the probability of having three boys then a girl is the probability of each of these events happening multiplied together. That is 50% x 50% x 50% x 50% or 0.54 This would mean that the chance of having a girl after three boys is 0.0625. If you've already had the three boys though, it is a different story. The point is that previous experiences do not affect future ones; probability has no memory. Thus the probability of having a girl next is 50%, regardless of if you've had boys or girls in the past. To think otherwise is known as the gambler's fallacy, where a gambler says "black has come up 4 times in a row, it must be red next" even though the chance of red is always 50%
Yes they do 2 boys and 1 girl
In fact he does two boys and one girl
The probability of an individual having either a male or female can not be altered. There is always a 50/50 chance of having a boy or girl. It is not a genetic trait to have one of the other.
Assuming probability of having a boy is P(B) = 1/2, and of having a girl is P(G) = 1/2,the probability of having 3 boys for 4 kids (with out regard to the girl to be the first,second, third or fourth kid) is;P(3B1G) = 4C3 [P(B)]4 = 4 (1/2)4 = 0.250 = 25%The factor 4 comes because there are 4 possibilities for the order in which the girl cancome out.
Yes, Ruby, Jakamo and Smokey. Two boys and a girl.
If we consider there is a 50% chance for having a boy and 50% for having a girl*, there is : - 12,5% chance of having no boys; - 37,5% chance of having 1 boy; - 37,5% chance of having 2 boys; - 12,5% chance of having 3 boys. Therefore, there is 50% chance of having at least two boys. *The odds are more like 51% for having a boy and 49% for having a girl, but it doesn't really matters.
i think 2 boys and 1 little girl good luck