Chat with our AI personalities
two sets A and B are said to be equivalent if there exists a bijective mapping between A and B
No, because the intersection of two equivalent sets will have a union the same size as its intersection.
Yes, both have cardinality 0.
They are not equivalent sets.
Two sets are equal if they have the same elements. Two sets are equivalent if there is a bijection from one set to the other. that is, each element of one set can be mapped, one-to-one, onto elements of the second set.