It most certainly can.
In fact it can be quite a useful function. If you want to suppress one function, f(x), over part of its domain you could define another function, g(x) that is equal to zero over that part of the domain and then study the function:
h(x) = f(x)*g(x) where both are defined
= f(x) otherwise.
You may want to do this if f(x) is ill-behaved over a part of its domain.
The range of the function y=x^2 would be y is greater than or equal to 0 in this case. So pretty much just find the vertex of the function and what ever the y coordinate is set that as the lowest number for the range.
How can 2 prime numbers ever be equal They cant be Equal.
Yes.
Yes. Typical example: y = x2. To avoid comparing infinite sets, restrict the function to integers between -3 and +3. Domain = -3, -2 , ... , 2 , 3. So |Domain| = 7 Range = 0, 1, 4, 9 so |Range| = 4 You have a function that is many-to-one. One consequence is that, without redefining its domain, the function cannot have an inverse.
Yes. The range can have fewer number of entries.As an extreme case, consider f(x) = 3, where x is a Real number.The domain is all Real numbers - infinitely many of them, while the range is one value: 3.A function can contain one-to-one or many-to-one relationships but one-to-many relationships are not permitted. As a result, the cardinality of the range cannot be bigger than the cardinality of the domain.
The range of the function y=x^2 would be y is greater than or equal to 0 in this case. So pretty much just find the vertex of the function and what ever the y coordinate is set that as the lowest number for the range.
How can 2 prime numbers ever be equal They cant be Equal.
Yes.
Cuz your body needs rest so that it can function properly, this helps people relax and rejuvinate.
The tangent is essentially the derivative of the function. The square-root is just what ever function that is takes two of that function to equal the tangent. If you need further help on this question just send me a message on my message board and id be glad to help you out.
Yes, the domain(input) would be all natural numbers (numbers greater or equal to zero). The range (output) would be all real numbers. -- Not only natural numbers would be considered part of this domain, all negative numbers are also reasonable inputs to this function, as any negative number multiplied by itself would produce a positive number..... The output (range) would therefore be all positive real numbers......
Yes. Typical example: y = x2. To avoid comparing infinite sets, restrict the function to integers between -3 and +3. Domain = -3, -2 , ... , 2 , 3. So |Domain| = 7 Range = 0, 1, 4, 9 so |Range| = 4 You have a function that is many-to-one. One consequence is that, without redefining its domain, the function cannot have an inverse.
NO!!! As a matter of fact, unless the function is a one-to-one function, where each x in the domain has one and only one image in the range and no y in the range is the image of more than one x, then it won't ever be a function after being inversed. Just remember to switch the x's and y's with each other and then solve for y to get the inverse. If you don't believe me, then use then graph the function and then its inverse and do the vertical line test on both.
No you cant. You have to be 18
u cant ever get legendarys as starters ever
No, I cant say that I have.
Yes. The range can have fewer number of entries.As an extreme case, consider f(x) = 3, where x is a Real number.The domain is all Real numbers - infinitely many of them, while the range is one value: 3.A function can contain one-to-one or many-to-one relationships but one-to-many relationships are not permitted. As a result, the cardinality of the range cannot be bigger than the cardinality of the domain.