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It most certainly can.
In fact it can be quite a useful function. If you want to suppress one function, f(x), over part of its domain you could define another function, g(x) that is equal to zero over that part of the domain and then study the function:
h(x) = f(x)*g(x) where both are defined
= f(x) otherwise.
You may want to do this if f(x) is ill-behaved over a part of its domain.
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What is the range of the function yx2?
The range of the function y=x^2 would be y is greater than or equal to 0 in this case. So pretty much just find the vertex of the function and what ever the y coordinate is set that as the lowest number for the range.
Can prime numbers be equal?
How can 2 prime numbers ever be equal They cant be Equal.
Is it ever possible for the domain and range in a function to have different numbers of entries?
Yes.
Is it ever possible for the domain and range to have different numbers of entries what happens when this is the case?
Yes. Typical example: y = x2. To avoid comparing infinite sets, restrict the function to integers between -3 and +3. Domain = -3, -2 , ... , 2 , 3. So |Domain| = 7 Range = 0, 1, 4, 9 so |Range| = 4 You have a function that is many-to-one. One consequence is that, without redefining its domain, the function cannot have an inverse.
Can the remainder ever equal the divisor?
No.
