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What is efficiency always less than?
It is always less than 1 or 100%.It is always less than 1 or 100%.It is always less than 1 or 100%.It is always less than 1 or 100%.
Which is less than 28 inches or 1 yard?
1 inch is less than 28 inches or 1 yard.1 inch is less than 28 inches or 1 yard.1 inch is less than 28 inches or 1 yard.1 inch is less than 28 inches or 1 yard.
What is the Pearson correlation coefficient of 64?
It is a serious error. The Pearson coefficient cannot be larger than 1 so a value of 64 is clearly a very big error.
What is a coefficient of 1?
1
Why can an improper fraction be less than 1?
It can be improper AND negative (less than 0 and so less than 1).
What numbers will a correlation coefficient not ever be?
34.32245Correlation coefficient is less than -1 and greater than 1.Note: The Correlation coefficient is lies between -1 to 1 if it is 0 mean there is no correlation between them.
What type of force does low coefficient belong to?
Friction has a low coefficient, usually less than 1.
Is -012 a negative correlation?
No. A correlation coefficient cannot be less than -1 (or greater than +1)
What is the correlation coefficient of -2?
A serious error. The maximum magnitude for a correlation coefficient is 1.The Correlation coefficient is lies between -1 to 1 if it is 0 mean there is no correlation between them. Here they are given less than -1 value so it is not a value of correlation coefficient.
When using scientific notation the the coefficient is less than what?
When using scientific notation, the coefficient must be between greater than or equal to 1, and less than 10. For example, 5.17, 9.63, and 1.49 are all correct coefficients, while 0.12 and 10.87 are not.
Why vane coefficient is always less than 1?
The vane coefficient is always less than 1 because it represents the ratio of actual power produced by a turbine to the ideal power that could be produced under perfect conditions. Since no turbine operates perfectly due to losses from friction, heat, and other inefficiencies, the vane coefficient is always less than 1.
The coefficient of friction is always?
The coefficient of friction is not always constant as it can vary depending on factors like materials in contact, surface roughness, and presence of lubricants.
Can a correlation coefficient be greater than 1?
No.
Can a coefficient of friction exceed 1 why?
Yes, a coefficient of friction can exceed 1. This can happen in cases where the force required to move an object is greater than the maximum force that can be provided by the contact surface. This would result in a coefficient of friction greater than 1.
What does it mean when the coefficient of performance in a refrigeration cycle is less than 1?
The COF will always be less than 1 a little confusing as im getting more than 1 with calculations at the moment, but i know its always less than one, its what the lectures at the university have told me. I am assuming if it is more than one you take the inverse of that number but im not sure, im looking for more information. its kind of like a percentage for efficiency. you cant have 110% efficient.
What is efficiency always less than?
It is always less than 1 or 100%.It is always less than 1 or 100%.It is always less than 1 or 100%.It is always less than 1 or 100%.
Can the greatest common factor ever be smaller than the smallest coefficient?
No. The smallest coefficient possible is 1, and the smallest GCF is also 1. You cannot have a common factor of zero.
