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What else can I help you with?
What is efficiency always less than?
It is always less than 1 or 100%.It is always less than 1 or 100%.It is always less than 1 or 100%.It is always less than 1 or 100%.
Which is less than 28 inches or 1 yard?
1 inch is less than 28 inches or 1 yard.1 inch is less than 28 inches or 1 yard.1 inch is less than 28 inches or 1 yard.1 inch is less than 28 inches or 1 yard.
Why can an improper fraction be less than 1?
It can be improper AND negative (less than 0 and so less than 1).
What is less than 1 foot?
30cm is less than 1 foot.
Is 1 greater or less than 99?
1 is less than 99
What numbers will a correlation coefficient not ever be?
34.32245Correlation coefficient is less than -1 and greater than 1.Note: The Correlation coefficient is lies between -1 to 1 if it is 0 mean there is no correlation between them.
What type of force does low coefficient belong to?
Friction has a low coefficient, usually less than 1.
Is -012 a negative correlation?
No. A correlation coefficient cannot be less than -1 (or greater than +1)
What is the correlation coefficient of -2?
A serious error. The maximum magnitude for a correlation coefficient is 1.The Correlation coefficient is lies between -1 to 1 if it is 0 mean there is no correlation between them. Here they are given less than -1 value so it is not a value of correlation coefficient.
When using scientific notation the the coefficient is less than what?
When using scientific notation, the coefficient must be between greater than or equal to 1, and less than 10. For example, 5.17, 9.63, and 1.49 are all correct coefficients, while 0.12 and 10.87 are not.
Why vane coefficient is always less than 1?
It isnt, for deflection angles b less than 90o, Cvane should be greater than 1.0, while for angles greater than 90o, it should be less than 1. Alot of times it is less then one because it is the ratio between the actual force and ideal force. Factual/Fideal. Since friction acts on the actual force, it is going to be less then the ideal force, resulting in a number lower than one.
The coefficient of friction is always?
The coefficient of friction is not always constant as it can vary depending on factors like materials in contact, surface roughness, and presence of lubricants.
Can a correlation coefficient be greater than 1?
No.
What is the phenol coefficient?
The phenol coefficient is a measure used to evaluate the disinfecting power of a chemical compared to phenol. It is determined by comparing the dilution of a test compound that achieves a specific level of microbial kill to that of phenol under identical conditions. A phenol coefficient greater than 1 indicates that the test compound is more effective than phenol, while a coefficient less than 1 indicates lower effectiveness. This metric helps in assessing the potency of disinfectants in microbiological applications.
Can a coefficient of friction exceed 1 why?
Yes, a coefficient of friction can exceed 1. This can happen in cases where the force required to move an object is greater than the maximum force that can be provided by the contact surface. This would result in a coefficient of friction greater than 1.
Is it possible for the coefficient of friction to exceed 1 in a given scenario?
Yes, it is possible for the coefficient of friction to exceed 1 in a given scenario. This can happen when the force required to move an object is greater than the force pressing the object against the surface, resulting in a coefficient of friction greater than 1.
What does it mean when the coefficient of performance in a refrigeration cycle is less than 1?
The COF will always be less than 1 a little confusing as im getting more than 1 with calculations at the moment, but i know its always less than one, its what the lectures at the university have told me. I am assuming if it is more than one you take the inverse of that number but im not sure, im looking for more information. its kind of like a percentage for efficiency. you cant have 110% efficient.
