answersLogoWhite

0

Look at this sequence:

103 = 1000

102 = 100

101 = 10

100 = 1


On the left side, the exponent reduces by one at a time; on the right side, the number decreases by a factor 10. So, the last step, 10 to the power zero = 1, is quite logical.


Note that this doesn't PROVE anything; in fact, the definition "x to the power zero = 1" might be considered an arbitrary definition. The sequence above only shows that the definition makes sense.

User Avatar

Wiki User

15y ago

Still curious? Ask our experts.

Chat with our AI personalities

RossRoss
Every question is just a happy little opportunity.
Chat with Ross
LaoLao
The path is yours to walk; I am only here to hold up a mirror.
Chat with Lao
SteveSteve
Knowledge is a journey, you know? We'll get there.
Chat with Steve

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Why would an integer with the power of 0 equal 1?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp