According to Keynes, if MPS = 1 then, in a closed system, MPC must be 0. The only alternative is to borrow - which defeats the purpose of saving all the marginal increase in income! Therefore, it is possible but most unlikely.
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Relationship if: MPC decreases, K (Multiplier) will be weaker MPC increases, K will be stronger MPC = o(zero), K = 1 MPC = 1, K= infinity in real life: K = more than 1 & less than infinity MPC = less than 1 & more than 0 Assumptions: K works better in a closed economy (no foreign trade) K works better in an economy which has not reached full employment level
Well, 0! (the mathematical sign for "factora") is actually 0 itself. ... So that leads us to the question "Is 1 equal to 0?" Although many people have tried to make proof that this is true, it's not. The only way that I can disprove this is that 0+0=0, and 1+1=2. If 0 really did equal 1, then it would also equal 2 (1+1). With that being said, all numbers would then equal 0. So this pattern would include numbers like pi, 5.7892, 0.75, and every other decimal. HOWEVER, this is NOT possible because, for example, 0.75 (which supposedly equals 0) can be converted to the fraction 3/4. Any fraction just simply means *numerator* divided by *denominator*. So, if 0=3&4, the fraction is really 0/0 (which means 0 divided by 0). It is absolutley IMPOSSIBLE to divide by zero. So, no. 0! does not equal 1.
4x2-4x-3=0 can be written as (2x-3)(2x+1)=0 Anything times by 0 equals 0 ( the zero property of multiplication) therefore we need to make each one of these terms in brackets equal to 0. so 2x-3=0 giving x=3/2 and 2x+1=0 giving x=-1/2
If a polynomial has factors x-6 and x-3 it will equal 0 if either factor equals 0 since the other factor then would be multiplied by 0. ie. 0 * (x-6)=0 and 0 * (x-3)=0. so x=3 or 6
100x2-81