Well, 0! (the mathematical sign for "factora") is actually 0 itself.
... So that leads us to the question "Is 1 equal to 0?"
Although many people have tried to make proof that this is true, it's not.
The only way that I can disprove this is that 0+0=0, and 1+1=2.
If 0 really did equal 1, then it would also equal 2 (1+1). With that being said, all numbers would then equal 0.
So this pattern would include numbers like pi, 5.7892, 0.75, and every other decimal. HOWEVER, this is NOT possible because, for example, 0.75 (which supposedly equals 0) can be converted to the fraction 3/4.
Any fraction just simply means *numerator* divided by *denominator*. So, if 0=3&4, the fraction is really 0/0 (which means 0 divided by 0). It is absolutley IMPOSSIBLE to divide by zero.
So, no. 0! does not equal 1.
the first one is:(0!+0!+0!)!=6Because 0!=10!+0!+0!=3and 3!=6Just use factorial(1+1+1)! = 63 Factorial = 62+2+2 = 6So Simple(3*3)-3 = 6Also SimpleSqrt(4) + Sqrt(4)+ Sqrt(4) = 6Sqrt(4) = 2So 2+2+2 =65+(5/5) = 6So Simple6+6-6 = 6Its quite simple7-(7/7) = 6Cuberoot(8) + Cuberoot(8) + Cuberoot(8) = 6Cuberoot(8) = 2Using the phrase "Cuberoot" is not allowed. This written as a mathematical sign viz. ³√x . This involves the number 3 which is not permissible. Since you have correctly solved for 0 and 1 it should be relatively easy to solve for 8. All your other answers are spot on although my cousin's answer for 8 was (cos((d/dx)(8))+cos((d/dx)(8))+cos((d/dx)(8))) = 6 which is correct but way far more complicated than the simpler answer that you should be looking for.(Sqrt(9) * Sqrt(9)) - Sqrt(9) = 6Sqrt(9) = 3(3*3)-3 = 6
0. There are 9 multiples of 10 between 1 and 99, so 99 factorial is divisible by at least the 9th power of 10. Therefore the last 9 digits are 0.
/*program to calculate factorial of a number*/ #include<stdio.h> #include<conio.h> void main() { long int n; int a=1; clrscr(); printf("enter the number="); scanf("%ld",&n); while(n>0) { a*=n; n--; } printf("the factorial is %ld",a); getch(); }
AnswerNot sure what your definition of factorial is. But with the usual definition, the sum is,0!+1!+2!+3!+4! ... = 1+1+2+6+24+.... = Ei(1)/e = .69...where Ei is the exponential integral function and e is Euler's number. You can compute a few terms to see how it converges :)To generate the sum of the factorial series nearly as fast the last factorial,1+1+2+6+24+... = 1+1(1+2(1+3(1+...+14(1+15)...)))The answer is 120.Answer 2If interpreted as (1+2+...+15)! the answer would be:6.6895029134491270575881180540903725867527463331380298... x 10^198
4x2-4x-3=0 can be written as (2x-3)(2x+1)=0 Anything times by 0 equals 0 ( the zero property of multiplication) therefore we need to make each one of these terms in brackets equal to 0. so 2x-3=0 giving x=3/2 and 2x+1=0 giving x=-1/2
Zero factorial, written as 0!, equals 1. This is a simple math equation.
0!=1! 1=1 The factorial of 0 is 1, not 0
Zero factorial is one because n! = n-1! X n. For example: 4! = (4-1) X 4. If zero factorial was zero, that would mean 1! =(1-1) X 1 = 0 X 1=0. Then if 1!=0, then even 999! would equal zero. Therefore, zero factorial equals 1.
Factorial(0), or 0! = 1.
What is the rationale for defining 0 factorial to be 1?AnswerThe defining 0 factorial to be 1 is not a rationale."Why is zero factorial equal to one?" is a problem that one has to prove.When 0 factorial to be 1 to be proved,the defining 0 factorial to be 1 is unvaluable.One has only one general primitive definition of a factorial number:n! = n x (n-1) x (n-2) x (n-3) x ... x 2 x 1.After that zero factorial denoted 0! is a problem that one has to acceptby convention 0!=1 as a part of definition.One has to prove zero factorial to be one.Only from the definition of a factorial number and by dividing both sidesby n one has: n!/n (n-1)! or (n-1)! = n!/nwhen n=2 one has (2-1)! = 2!/2 or 1! = 2x1/2 or 1! = 1when n=1 one has (1-1)! = 1!/1 or 0! = 1/1 or 0! = 1. =This is a proof that zero factorial is equal to one to be known.But a new proof is:A Schema Proof Without WordsThat Zero Factorial Is Equal To One.... ... ...Now the expression 0! = 1 is already a proof, not need a definitionnor a convention. So the defining 0 factorial to be 1 is unvaluable.The proof "without words" abovethat zero factorial is equal to one is a New that:*One has not to accept by convention 0!=1 anymore.*Zero factorial is not an empty product.*This Schema leads to a Law of Factorial.Note that the above schema is true but should not be used in a formal proof for 0!=1.The problem arises when you simplify the pattern formed by this schema into a MacLauren Series, which is the mathematical basis for it in the first place. Upon doing so you arrive with, . This representation illustrates that upon solving it you use 0!.In proofs you cannot define something by using that which you are defining in the definition. (ie) 0! can't be used when solving a problem within a proof of 0!.For clarification, the above series will represent the drawn out solution for the factorial of a number, i. (ie) 1×76 -6×66 +15×56 -20×46 +15×36 -6×26 +1×16 , where i=6.
The trick is that zero factorial (0!) equals 1[1], so (0!+0!+0!+0!+0!)! = 5! = 120
145 1! = 1 4! = 24 5! = 120
The simple answer is that it is defined to be 1. But there is reason behind the decision.As you know, the factorial of a number (n) is equal to:n! = n * (n-1) * (n-2) ... * 1Another way of writing this is:n! = n * (n-1)!Suppose n=1:1! = 1 * 0!or1 = 1 * 0!or1 = 0!So by defining 0! as 1, formula involving factorials will work for all integers, including 0.
Definition of FactorialLet n be a positive integer. n factorial, written n!, is defined by n! = 1 * 2 * 3 * ... (n - 1) * nThe special case when n = 0, 0 factorial is given by: 0! = 1
yes, 0!=1 default.
A recursive formula for the factorial is n! = n(n - 1)!. Rearranging gives (n - 1)! = n!/n, Substituting 'n - 1' as 0 -- i.e. n = 1 -- then 0! = 1!/1, which is 1/1 = 1.
simply, any number divided by 0 is 0.