answersLogoWhite

0

Does P equal NP

Updated: 12/21/2022
User Avatar

Wiki User

15y ago

Best Answer

Yes, but only if any language in NP has small uniform circuits.

Hope this helps. This is a famous unsolved problem, as whoever posted it here probably knows. A prize of one million US dollars has been offered for a solution. There are details at http://www.claymath.org/millennium/P_vs_NP/ At the top right of this page there is a link to the "Official problem description" by Stephen Cook, one of the people who first posed the problem in 1971, and also a more informal description under the heading "Minesweeper". Anyone who solves this problem will get not only a million dollars, but also enduring fame among mathematicians and computer scientists. It won't be easy, since a lot of clever people have worked on it since 1971. Most people believe that P is not equal to NP, but a belief is not the same as a proof.

User Avatar

Wiki User

15y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Does P equal NP
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp
Related questions

What do the grades NP P SP stand for at Mount San Antonio college?

np means no pass, p means pass and i don't know what sp stand for.


When can a binomial situation be approxiamted with a normal distribution?

The binomial distribution can be approximated with a normal distribution when np > 5 and np(1-p) > 5 where p is the proportion (probability) of success of an event and n is the total number of independent trials.


What does NP equal P mean?

It is still an open question. NP is the class of problems which can be solved in polynomial time by a program run by the theoretical non-deterministic machine. (That is, there is a polynomial upper-bound for the time it would take for the machine to compute the answer, with respect to the size of the input). P is the class of problems which can be solved in polynomial time by a program run by an actual computer (or some abstract model thereof). So far it is not known for sure whether the two classes are the same or not. There are many problems which are known to be NP, and for which no polynomial solution for a real computer is known. However, there is currently no proof that such a solution does not exist (perhaps it does and no one has found it yet). That is why whether P equals NP or not is still an open problem.


What are some transformice tribe house codes?

House codes:/np @931629/np @709003Bootcamp like codes:/np @172976/np @608368/np @191205/np @842019/np @159932/np @593204/np @145219/np @1450120/np @449496/np @618999/np @801683/np @1014313/np @1444036/np @633644/np @808800/np @1444041Thats all I got sorry if some don't work I didn't check them allIf you want to find me on TFM my user is Butterbe


What are some house tribe codes?

House codes: /np @931629 /np @709003 Bootcamp like codes: /np @172976 /np @608368 /np @191205 /np @842019 /np @159932 /np @593204 /np @145219 /np @1450120 /np @449496 /np @618999 /np @801683 /np @1014313 /np @1444036 /np @633644 /np @808800 /np @1444041 That's all I know, but I hope it'll be to help ^^


What is the difference between P and NP complexity classes?

P is the class of problems for which there is a deterministic polynomial time algorithm which computes a solution to the problem. NP is the class of problems where there is a nondeterministic algorithm which computes a solution to the problem, but no known deterministic polynomial time solution


Can you transfer manaphy on platinum?

I think u can transfer manaphy from one of the Pokemon ranger gamesppp p oooooo k k eeeeeee mmmm mmmm oooooo nnnnnnp p o o kk e m m m m o o n np o o k k eeeeee m mmm m o o n np p o o k k e m m o o n np p o o k k e m m o o n np oooooo k k eeeeee m m oooooo n np


What is the answer to P equals NP?

This is an unsolved problem in computer science; you can't expect to get an answer here, for a problem that nobody on Earth has solved yet! For more information, read the Wikipedia article "P versus NP problem". Briefly, it relates to the question whether or not there are problems that are "hard" to solve, but - once solved - "easy" to verify. This is one of the "millenium problems"; if you can find a proof that P = NP, or (more likely) that it isn't, you can earn a prize of a million dollars.


An order is placed for n items each costing p dollars and twice as many items each costing 9 dollars more. Write a simplified expression for the total cost of the order.?

Unit cost of the first item . . . . pNumber of these ordered . . . nCost of these . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . npUnit cost of the second item . . . (p + 9)Number of these ordered . . . . . 2nCost of these . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2n(p + 9)Cost of the total order . . .np + 2n(p + 9) =np + 2np + 18n =n (p + 2p + 18) =n (3p + 18) = 3n (p + 6)


Is odd times odd always odd?

Yes, it's always odd, and here's the proof: All odd numbers can be expressed as 2p + 1, where p is any integer. Multiply two of those together: (2n + 1)(2p + 1) = 4np + 2n + 2p + 1 = 2(np + n + p) + 1. Since both np, n, and p are integers, that means np + n + p is an integer; and since that integer is being multiplied by 2, it must be even. Thus, by adding 1 to that even number, the result will be odd.


Why binomial distribution can be approximated by Poisson distribution?

Only in certain circumstances:The probability of success, p, in each trial must be close to 0.Then, for the random variable, X = number of successes in n trials, the mean is npand the variance is np(1-p). But since p is close to 0, (1-p) is close to 1 and so np(1-p) is close to np.That is, the mean of the distribution is close to its variance. This is a characteristic of the Poisson distribution.Furthermore, the other characteristics of the distribution: constant probability, independence are met so the Binomial can be approximated by the Poisson.It is possible to prove this analytically but the limitations of this browser - especially in terms of mathematical notation - preclude that.Only in certain circumstances:The probability of success, p, in each trial must be close to 0.Then, for the random variable, X = number of successes in n trials, the mean is npand the variance is np(1-p). But since p is close to 0, (1-p) is close to 1 and so np(1-p) is close to np.That is, the mean of the distribution is close to its variance. This is a characteristic of the Poisson distribution.Furthermore, the other characteristics of the distribution: constant probability, independence are met so the Binomial can be approximated by the Poisson.It is possible to prove this analytically but the limitations of this browser - especially in terms of mathematical notation - preclude that.Only in certain circumstances:The probability of success, p, in each trial must be close to 0.Then, for the random variable, X = number of successes in n trials, the mean is npand the variance is np(1-p). But since p is close to 0, (1-p) is close to 1 and so np(1-p) is close to np.That is, the mean of the distribution is close to its variance. This is a characteristic of the Poisson distribution.Furthermore, the other characteristics of the distribution: constant probability, independence are met so the Binomial can be approximated by the Poisson.It is possible to prove this analytically but the limitations of this browser - especially in terms of mathematical notation - preclude that.Only in certain circumstances:The probability of success, p, in each trial must be close to 0.Then, for the random variable, X = number of successes in n trials, the mean is npand the variance is np(1-p). But since p is close to 0, (1-p) is close to 1 and so np(1-p) is close to np.That is, the mean of the distribution is close to its variance. This is a characteristic of the Poisson distribution.Furthermore, the other characteristics of the distribution: constant probability, independence are met so the Binomial can be approximated by the Poisson.It is possible to prove this analytically but the limitations of this browser - especially in terms of mathematical notation - preclude that.


Difference between np and np complete?

A problem is 'in NP' if there exists a polynomial time complexity algorithm which runs on a Non-Deterministic Turing Machine that solves it. A problem is 'NP Hard' if all problems in NP can be reduced to it in polynomial time, or equivalently if there is a polynomial-time reduction of any other NP Hard problem to it. A problem is NP Complete if it is both in NP and NP hard.