Equivalent fractions are equivalent because they have the same value. The numerators and denominators each would be 'larger' than numerator and denominator of the simplified fraction by a whole number factor (except zero).
Example: 3/4. equivalent fractions would be (3*2)/(4*2) = 6/8, or (3*3)/(4*3) = 9/12, etc.
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A number multiplied by 1 is equal to the original number. So: For fractions where the numerator (top) is LESS than the deonominator (bottom), the product will be LESS than the original number, because the fraction has a value of LESS than 1. For fractions where the numerator is MORE than the denominator, the product will be MORE than the original number because the fraction has a value of MORE than 1. For fractions where the numerator and denominator are the same, the product will be the same as the original number because the fraction has a value equal to 1.
Technically, the answer is always "No", simply because there's no such thing asan "interger".However, a fraction is equivalent to an integer if its numerator is a multiple ofits denominator.
There is no complete answer because a fraction can always be reduced sot there is no smallest fraction.
1. Write this as 60/100. 2. Simplify the fraction as much as you can. 3. In the result of step (2), multiply top and bottom by the same number, to get an additional fractions. You can repeat (with the result of step (2)), multiplying top and bottom with different numbers (but always the same number for top and bottom), to get additional equivalent fractions.
If the fractions are both proper fractions ... equivalent to less than 1 ... thenthat's always true ... the product is always less than either factor.