Equivalent fractions are equivalent because they have the same value. The numerators and denominators each would be 'larger' than numerator and denominator of the simplified fraction by a whole number factor (except zero).
Example: 3/4. equivalent fractions would be (3*2)/(4*2) = 6/8, or (3*3)/(4*3) = 9/12, etc.
A number multiplied by 1 is equal to the original number. So: For fractions where the numerator (top) is LESS than the deonominator (bottom), the product will be LESS than the original number, because the fraction has a value of LESS than 1. For fractions where the numerator is MORE than the denominator, the product will be MORE than the original number because the fraction has a value of MORE than 1. For fractions where the numerator and denominator are the same, the product will be the same as the original number because the fraction has a value equal to 1.
Technically, the answer is always "No", simply because there's no such thing asan "interger".However, a fraction is equivalent to an integer if its numerator is a multiple ofits denominator.
There is no complete answer because a fraction can always be reduced sot there is no smallest fraction.
1. Write this as 60/100. 2. Simplify the fraction as much as you can. 3. In the result of step (2), multiply top and bottom by the same number, to get an additional fractions. You can repeat (with the result of step (2)), multiplying top and bottom with different numbers (but always the same number for top and bottom), to get additional equivalent fractions.
If the fractions are both proper fractions ... equivalent to less than 1 ... thenthat's always true ... the product is always less than either factor.
Any fraction divided by an equivalent fraction will always equal one.Any fraction divided by an equivalent fraction will always equal one.Any fraction divided by an equivalent fraction will always equal one.Any fraction divided by an equivalent fraction will always equal one.
Not always. There are times when division of fractions results in a non-improper fraction.
You can always find equivalent fractions by multiplying a fraction by 2. Therefore, 27/35 is the same as 54/70 and the same as 108/140.
A fraction multiplied by its reciprocal is always equal to one. This is because the reciprocal is an inversion of the fraction. The denominator of a fraction is the same number as the numerator of the reciprocal, and vice versa. The product of this is a fraction with the same numbers for the denominator and reciprocal, which is also known as an equivalent fraction. Equivalent fractions are always equal to one.
A number multiplied by 1 is equal to the original number. So: For fractions where the numerator (top) is LESS than the deonominator (bottom), the product will be LESS than the original number, because the fraction has a value of LESS than 1. For fractions where the numerator is MORE than the denominator, the product will be MORE than the original number because the fraction has a value of MORE than 1. For fractions where the numerator and denominator are the same, the product will be the same as the original number because the fraction has a value equal to 1.
Technically, the answer is always "No", simply because there's no such thing asan "interger".However, a fraction is equivalent to an integer if its numerator is a multiple ofits denominator.
no they are not always equivalent.
There is no complete answer because a fraction can always be reduced sot there is no smallest fraction.
2/14, 3/21, 4/28...just multiply the numerator(top) and denominator(bottom) by the same number and your result will always be equivalent to the original fraction :)
There can be no such thing as a nearest fraction since, given any fraction, it is always possible to find a fraction that is nearer.
yes it does
Rational numbers can always be expressed as fractions.