Yes. A straight line for example, such as y = x.
A polynomial function is defined for all x, ranging from minus infinity to plus infinity. Since it is defined for all x, it is defined for x = 0 and this is the point where it intersects the y-axis which is called the y-intercept. It is possible, with suitable choice of coefficients that the function is always positive or always negative. In either case it will not cross the x-axis so that there is no x-intercept. However, it is not true to say that all polynomial functions with real coefficients do not have an x-intercept. In fact all polynomials of odd order (linear, cubic, quintic etc) will have at least one x-intercept.
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Quadratics that can be written in the form y = a*(x - r)2
That's a normal function. It means that it passes the vertical line test. A function where there is only one y-value for each x-value and only one x-value for each y-value is called a one-to-one function. The inverse of a one-to-one function is also a function.many-to-one function. ~APEX
Having one given point is not enough. A y-intercept is described as the point of intersection of a function or relation or line and the ordinate axis (or y-axis).Suppose a function intersects the y-axis at (0, 6), then 6 is the value of the y-intercept. Or if the line that passes through (5, 4) is parallel to x-axis, then y-intercept is 4; if it passes through the origin, then y-intercept is 0; if it is perpendicular to x-axis (or parallel to y-axis) there is not an y-intercept.
The y-intercept is the value of the function when 'x' is zero. That is, it's the point at which the graph of the function intercepts (crosses) the y-axis. The x-intercept is the value of 'x' that makes the value of the function zero. That is, it's the point at which 'y' is zero, and the graph of the function intercepts the x-axis.
No. If the function has more than one x-intercept then there are more than one values of x for which y = 0. This means that, for the inverse function, y = 0 should be mapped onto more than one x values. That is, the inverse function would be many-to-one. But a function cannot be many-to-one. So the "inverse" is not a function. And tat means the original function is not invertible.
No, it is not. The y-intercept is the point where a function is evaluated as x=0. The point symmetrical to that is the one the same distance from the origin along the y-axis. For example, in the function y = 3x + 2, the y=intercept is (0,2) and the point symmetrical to that is (0,-2) Also, the x-intercept is when y=0 (solving for x) ■
The y-intercept is the value of the function (if it exists) when x = 0.
in general, the y-intercept of the function f(X)= axb^x is the point__.
Wherever a given function crosses either the x-axis (which would be an x-axis intercept), or where the given function crosses the y-axis (which would be a y-axis intercept). Functions sometimes have more than one intercept of either axis, so be careful to check for those.
The function y = -1 has no x-intercept; its graph is a horizontal line with a y-intercept of -1.
The x- and y-intercepts of a function are the points at which the graph of the function crosses respectively the x- and y-axis (ie. y=0 and x=0).
The point at which a function crosses the x-axis.
x-intercept
There is not sufficient information. Any equation of the form y = ax3 will intercept the x-axis only at (0,0), for any non-zero value of a. This is a triple root of the equation. Furthermore, consider any equation of the form y = (x-p)*Q(x) where Q(x) is any quadratic function of x without real roots. This is the equation of a cubic which has only one x-intercept: at (p,0).
The Y-Intercept of the cosine function is X = 0, Y = cosine(0) = 1.