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All real numbers, except 0, have a multiplicative inverse. For any real x, (x not = 0), there exists a real number y such that x*y = 1. This y is denoted by 1/x.

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โˆ™ 2009-09-08 11:27:42
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A polynomial of degree zero is a constant term

The grouping method of factoring can still be used when only some of the terms share a common factor A True B False

The sum or difference of p and q is the of the x-term in the trinomial

A number a power of a variable or a product of the two is a monomial while a polynomial is the of monomials

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Q: Do real numbers have a multiplicative inverse?
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Related questions

What are the elements in rational numbers having multiplicative inverse?

All rational numbers, with the exception of zero (0), have a multiplicative inverse. In fact, all real numbers (again, except for zero) have multiplicative inverses, though the inverses of irrational numbers are themselves irrational. Even imaginary numbers have multiplicative inverses (the multiplicative inverse of 5i is -0.2i - as you can see the inverse itself is also imaginary). Even complex numbers (the sum of an imaginary number and a real number) have multiplicative inverses (the inverse of [5i + 2] is [-5i/29 + 2/29] - similar to irrational and imaginary numbers, the inverse of a complex number is itself complex). The onlynumber, in any set of numbers, that does not have a multiplicative inverse is zero.


What number does not have a multiplicative inverse?

A multiplicative inverse for 2 numbers exists if the 2 numbers are coprime, i.e. their greatest common divisor (or gcd) is 1. However, if your question refers to just a singular number, virtually all real numbers (with the exception of zero) have a multiplicative inverse.


What numbers are their own multiplicative inverse?

One


What is multiplicative inverse in rational numbers?

The inverse function of multiplication is division.


Why doesn't every real number have a multiplicative inverse?

The only real (or complex) number which does not have a multiplicative inverse is 0. There is nothing you can multiply by 0 to get 1.


Does the set of rational numbers have a multiplicative inverse?

Yes, and for any non-zero rational x, the multiplicative inverse is 1/x.


What is the multiplicative of -1?

Assuming the question is about the multiplicative inverse, the answer is, -1. It is its own multiplicative inverse.


What number has no multiple inverse?

On the set of all real numbers ZERO has no multiplicative inverse. For other sets there may be other numbers too, so please define your set!


Is it true that any real number has a multiplicative inverse?

No, it is not true.


What is the difference between additive and multiplicative inverse?

The additive inverse is the inverse under addition; the multiplicative inverse is the inverse under multiplication. For example, the additive inverse of any real or complex number is its negative: the inverse of 3 is -3 and vice versa. The multiplicative inverse of a number other than 0 (which has no such inverse) is its reciprocal: the inverse of 2 is 1/2, and vice versa. Adding a number and its additive inverse gives the additive identity, 0. Multiplying a number by its multiplicative inverse gives the multiplicative identity, 1.


What is the multiplicative inverse of -8?

the multiplicative inverse of -8 is just positive 8 :) * * * * * NO, that is the additive inverse. The multiplicative inverse of -8 is -1/8 or -0.125


How do you find the multiplicative inverse of mixed numbers?

change it to an improper fraction and then do it

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