There are infinitely many equivalent fractions to any given fraction.
No. There are infinitely many equivalent fractions for any given fraction.
There are infinitely many fractions. For any number Nthat is greater than 32, 32/N is a proper fraction.
There are an infinite number of proper fractions equal to any other fraction - as long as you multiply the numerator and denominator by the same number, the fractions will be equivalent.
If you are asking how many different fractions lie in this range the answer is an infinite amount. If you are asking what fraction lies in the center it is 1/2
Every fraction has infinitely many fractions that areequivalent to it. So every fraction is equivalent.Every fraction has infinitely many fractions that areequivalent to it. So every fraction is equivalent.Every fraction has infinitely many fractions that areequivalent to it. So every fraction is equivalent.Every fraction has infinitely many fractions that areequivalent to it. So every fraction is equivalent.
There are infinitely many equivalent fractions to any given fraction.
11319 is an integer and not a fraction. Furthermore, fractions are infinitely dense so there is no such thing as a "next" fraction. Between any two fractions, however close together, there are infinitely many fractions and, between any two of those, there are infinitely many, and between ...
Fractions are infinitely dense. What that means is that the only fraction that can be closest to a given fraction is the fraction itself. Given any other candidate fraction there are infinitely many fractions between it and the target fraction, so each one of those infinitely many fractions is closer.Therefore, the answer to the question is -225/1000 or, equivalently, 9/40.
An infinite amount.
There are no such fractions. No matter how close a fraction is to zero, there are still infinitely many that are closer.
Every fraction has infinitely many equivalent fractions. A representative fraction is one member of this set.
There are infinitely many fractions between any two fractions.
Fractions are infinitely dense and this means that between any two fractions there an infinite number of fractions. If any fraction, f, laid claims to being the nearest, there would be infinitely many fractions between 0 and f and so infinitely many fractions which were closer to 0. This means that f could not be the closest. The argument can be used again and again and so there cannot be a fraction closest to 0.
Each of the infinite;y many fractions with infinitely many names!
No. There are infinitely many equivalent fractions for any given fraction.
"The two" equivalent fractions is incorrect - there are infinitely many equivalent fractions, not just two.